2024 Edition

Personal Trainer Practice Test

Take this free practice test to see how prepared you are for a personal trainer certification exam. There are a number of organizations that provide a certifying credential for personal trainers. All of them require the passing of an exam to obtain certification.

For other resources, check out our free ACE Personal Trainer practice exam or our free NSCA Certified Personal Tainer practice exam.

To prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer exam, use our ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam Kit with 750 questions with answers fully explained.

If you need to prepare for the NSCA-CPT exam, check out our NSCA-CPT Practice Exam Kit.

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1.	Which form of non-verbal communication should not be used during the initial investigation stage of the trainer-client relationship?
		a. Sitting 1.5 to 4 feet away from the client
		b. Sitting with arms crossed
		c. Mirroring the client's posture, gestures, and tones
		d. All of the above
It is recommended to sit a reasonable distance away from a client so that they do not feel uncomfortable, but also close enough that they feel engaged with you. It is also recommended that you mirror their behavior to facilitate intimacy and aid in the rapport building process. By having arms crossed, you would display closed body language, which is often perceived as less friendly and less welcoming, thus it is not recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	If you discover during your initial evaluation that your client has rotator cuff tendinitis, what should you do?
		a. Advise the client get clearance from their primary care physician before beginning a structured exercise program with you.
		b. Begin training the client without medical clearance, designing an exercise program that you would for any other client.
		c. Begin training the client without medical clearance, designing a modified exercise program that would not exacerbate the condition.
		d. Begin training the client without medical clearance, and attempt to rehabilitate the rotator cuff tendinitis therapeutically through exercise prescription.
Medical clearance to begin a structured exercise program is not necessary for this condition. Treating the musculoskeletal pathology is outside of the scope of practice of a personal trainer and should be instead left to a physical therapist. Instead, a personal trainer's role is to best meet the client's health and fitness needs without making the condition worse. Their physical therapist will have prescribed rehabilitative movements. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	During an initial assessment, what planes of the body can you use a plumbline to observe?
		a. The frontal plane
		b. The sagittal plane
		c. The transverse plane
		d. All of the above
A plumbline can be used to evaluate postural deviations across all three of the planes of the body. It is typically best to perform in front of a postural grid. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	Which of the following assessments cannot determine actual body fat composition?
		a. Skinfold Measurements
		b. Hydrostatic Weighing
		c. BMI
		d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis
BMI is a ratio of body weight to height and has nothing to do with body composition. The other 3 methods listed attempt to predict fat mass and fat free mass within the body via norm-referenced data specific to your age and gender. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	A standard fitness assessment has many components, but one of the following is not included. Which one is not a part of the assessment?
		a. Body Composition
		b. Daily Caloric Intake
		c. Strength
		d. Flexibility
Do not assess a client's caloric intake. That is the job of a Registered Dietician. Assessing it is far beyond your scope of practice and can result in you encountering life-changing legal trouble as well as putting your client's well-being at risk. Assess body composition, strength, and flexibility instead. These metrics are in line with your training and education. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	A young man is just beginning a strength training routine and has hired you as his trainer. Listed below are some generic strength training guidelines. Determine which of them is inappropriate for a beginner.
		a. Train each muscle group at least 2-3 days a week
		b. Do 3 sets of 8-16 reps for each exercise
		c. Select exercises to work each of the six major muscle groups
		d. Work each muscle group through its full range of motion
According to the FITT principle, training the full body 2-3x per week is appropriate for a novice trainee. In order to prevent reductions in functional range of motion through resistance training, it is important that each repetition be performed through the entirety of a joint's range of motion. However, performing 3 sets of 8-16 reps would mean that repetitions are prescribed in both the hypertrophy and endurance training paradigms. One training day should not focus on multiple training goals when working with a beginner, given undulating periodization is an advanced programming technique. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	A young woman has engaged you as her trainer. She is in her early 20s, appears to be very fit, is within her proper weight range and has no known health concerns. Given all of this, what is the very first thing you should do?
		a. Get her to sign a contract
		b. Find her BMI
		c. Perform a total fitness assessment
		d. Discuss and have her sign an informed consent
It is important when onboarding a new client to cover liability, potential risks and have the client sign an informed consent. Even if working within the scope of your education and covered under liability insurance, having documented proof that the client is aware of potential risks can later protect you if you are ever sued. Do not provide health or fitness advice until after you are completely covered, for your own protection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	Skeletal muscle consists of two main types of muscle fibers. Which of these muscle fibers are the largest and fastest?
		a. Type I
		b. Type IIa
		c. Type IIx
		d. Both Type IIa and IIx are the same
Type IIx fibers are larger fast twitch muscle fibers than type I and type IIa. Formally referred to as type IIb fibers in humans, these fibers produce the most force per contractile unit and tend to have greater cross sectional area. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	The aerobic system is the fastest way for the human body to generate energy.
		True
		False
The anaerobic energy pathways respond the fastest to acute needs for ATP in the body. The fastest of all of these pathways is the Phosphagen system, which involves the resynthesis of ATP from reactions of ADP and CP. The anaerobic pathway is most heavily relied on when undergoing heavy resistance training or sprinting. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	Which of the following is not considered a monosaccharide?
		a. Fructose
		b. Glucose
		c. Galactose
		d. Sucrose
Sucrose is a disaccharide formed by the binding of two glucose molecules as a polymer. The other three options are all monosaccharides, meaning they are carbohydrates that consist of one isomer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	How do you calculate a client's Body Mass Index (BMI)?
		a. Weight (lbs)/ Height (in) x 703
		b. Weight (lbs)/ Height (in)/ 703
		c. [Weight (lbs) x Weight (lbs)]/Height (in) x 703
		d. Weight (lbs)/ [Height (in) x Height (in)] x 703
BMI is measured in Kg/m². The equation can also be written as Weight (lbs)/ Height²(in) x 703. This equation allows you to convert lbs/in to this SI unit. Knowing an individual's BMI can allow for population normative comparisons and inform on the general fitness of an untrained or sedentary individual. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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12.	What is considered to be the average approximate resting heart rate for both men and women?
		a. 50-60 BPM
		b. 70-72 BPM
		c. 80-92 BPM
		d. 100-110 BPM
This value is the average resting heart rate for both men and women. Resting heart rates refer to an individual's heart rate taken at the radial site when an individual is completely still with the arm rested at heart level. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	Subcutaneous fat is stored under the skin.
		True
		False
Subcutaneous fat is stored under the skin and is not prevalent at the layer of the visceral tissue and major organs of the body. Visceral fat is the type of fat that exists at the organ level. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Name the six essential nutrients the human body must have to be healthy.
		a. Fat, Protein, Carbohydrates, Water, Vitamins, Minerals
		b. Fat, Protein, Carbohydrates, Meat, Sugar, Vitamins
		c. Fat, Protein, Vegetables, Vitamins, Minerals, Water
		d. Fat, Protein, Sugar, Meat, Vegetables, Water
Protein, carbohydrates and fat are all three essential dietary macronutrients that contain calories. These, along with water, vitamins, and minerals are absolutely necessary for the body to be able to perform all of its necessary daily functions. Meat, and vegetables are types of food that have multiple of the essential nutrients inside of them. Sugar is a type of carbohydrate. Though these items can help provide essential nutrients, they are not the same as the actual categories of those nutrients. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	One of your newest clients has diabetes. How should you handle her condition?
		a. Check her blood glucose level before you begin each session
		b. Ask her to sign a special waiver of liability
		c. Keep fast acting carbohydrates on hand in case she develops hypoglycemia
		d. Both a and c
It is important to make sure your client is neither hyperglycemic or hypoglycemic prior to exercising. This is especially true prior to beginning an aerobic activity bout given glucose will be predominantly used as fuel. In the case that exercise results in dangerous blood glucose levels, it is important to keep a carbohydrate rich snack nearby with a high GI index. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	Which of the following is not a complex carbohydrate?
		a. Brown Rice
		b. Millet
		c. Maltose
		d. Buckwheat
Complex carbohydrates tend to be rich in fiber and consist of various carbohydrate polymers. Maltose has a high GI index and is very akin to sugar. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	Insulin is an example of a fast acting hormone.
		True
		False
Insulin acts immediately in the body during exercise to respond to acute changes in blood glucose. If intramuscular glucose stores get too low from exercise, then insulin will immediately be upregulated to help the cell with glucose reuptake. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	What does a goniometer measure?
		a. Range of movement
		b. Strength
		c. Load
		d. BMI
Goniometers measure range of motion in degrees. They are positioned at the fulcrum of a joint and used to track the beginning and end position of the lever moved around that fulcrum. They can be used to gauge progress and disability. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	Which of the following is not necessary for a healthy diet?
		a. Milk
		b. Grains
		c. Vegetables
		d. Multivitamins
Multivitamins have very low bioavailability in the body, meaning that they are not absorbed very easily. It is typically easier for the body to absorb all of the nutrients it needs from actual food such as dairy, grains, or vegetables. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	The human body stores carbohydrates in the form of glycogen. This glycogen is stored in several places until it is needed. In which of the following locations is glycogen stored?
		a. Liver tissue
		b. Muscle tissue
		c. Large intestine
		d. Both a and b
Glycogen is stored intramuscularly to allow for fast transport to active tissue to replenish ATP during exercise. By contrast, glycogen stored in the liver is utilized to mediate changes in blood glucose levels. The large intestine, however, is not equipped to store glycogen. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	It is not always necessary to ensure that a healthy, male client in his early 20s is exercising in his Target Heart Rate Zone.
		True
		False
Depending on an individual's training goal, training status, individual heart rate, and specific program design it may not be beneficial to always base aerobic exercise prescription on a target zone. Two different 20 year old males may have completely different heart rate reserves, meaning that prescription intensities with the same heart rate max based target heart rate zone would be at different intensities for both individuals. In practical application, when using the Karvonen formula for predicting heart rate max, keep in mind that the value you end up with is only a predicted value, not an absolute. Determine heart rate max through a graded exercise test instead. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	There are many forms of aerobic activity, but only a few of them are considered to be primary aerobic activities. Which of the following is a primary aerobic activity?
		a. Yoga
		b. Pilates
		c. Walking
		d. Weight Training
Walking is a primary aerobic activity given it is the only physical activity on this list that involves repeated rhythmic muscle actions sustained over a long period of time. Because of its potential duration, it places more of an aerobic demand on the body than activities that are only maintained for short bursts such as weight training, yoga or pilates. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	There are three energy systems in the body used to resynthesize ATP. Which of the following energy systems occurs almost immediately?
		a. The Phosphagen System
		b. Fast Glycolysis
		c. Aerobic Production
		d. None of the above
The phosphagen system acts first and involves the breakdown of CP to produce ATP from ADP. It can only sustain up to 6 seconds of exercise at a time, so it is mostly relied on in fast, short duration, and high power movements. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	Which of the following muscle contraction types generates force with little to no joint movement?
		a. Isometric
		b. Isotonic
		c. Isokinetic
		d. Isocentric
Isometric contractions do not involve a lengthening or shortening of the involved muscle tissue. All of the other options on this list require joint motion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	Dynamic stretches should be held for at least 30 seconds.
		True
		False
Static stretches should be held for at least 30 seconds. Dynamic stretches involve active movement throughout a joint's full range of motion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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26.	The Karvonen formula is a popular method for monitoring training intensity. What does this formula calculate?
		a. A client's BMI
		b. A client's Energy Expenditure for each exercise
		c. A client's Target Heart Rate
		d. A client's Daily Caloric Requirements
The Karvonen formula is used to calculate an individual's max heart rate based on their current age. It is calculated by subtracting their age from 220, but is only just a prediction. This can be used to determine target heart rate zone. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	What is the correct definition of the "overload principle"?
		a. Do not overdo your exercise routine, or you will not make any progress and may injure yourself.
		b. Always lift your maximum possible weight.
		c. You have to regularly challenge your muscles to optimally facilitate muscle growth.
		d. None of the above.
Overload is necessary to facilitate adaptation to exercise. If large enough loads are not used, you will not recruit many motor units in the target muscle you are training during an exercise. You need enough of a stimulus to disrupt homeostasis and force the body to release hormones like HGH and testosterone to help build muscle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	Which of the following should be considered as part of effective program design for your clients?
		a. Needs Assessment
		b. Exercise Volume and Loads
		c. Rest Intervals
		d. All of the above
These are all a part of FITT-VP prescriptions, including the needs assessment which is necessary to determine which values to prescribe for each FITT-VP variable. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	It is considered within the scope of practice to offer a specific dietary plan for your clients.
		True
		False
It is not within the scope of practice for a personal trainer to advise others on diet plans. Only registered dieticians can legally advise others on diet plans in the United States. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	Muscle fiber types have different characteristics. Which muscle fiber type is least prone to fatigue?
		a. Type I
		b. Type IIa
		c. Type IIx
		d. Either Type IIa or Type IIx
Type I fibers are much smaller, but have more mitochondria. These mitochondria allow type I fibers to better utilize aerobic energy pathways, making them much harder to fatigue than the less mitochondria dense type IIa and type IIx fibers. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	A popular method for determining your client's daily energy needs is the Mifflin-St. Jeor resting metabolic rate (RMR) equation.
		True
		False
This is one of the only effective ways to predict RMR without access to an exercise physiology laboratory. Knowing RMR has little practical use for the typical personal trainer though other than for advanced evaluative purposes. It is typically best to understand a client's basal metabolic rate and their total daily energy expenditure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Stretching is important because it helps loosen tight muscles and decreases the likelihood of injuries. It also offers other benefits. Which of the following is also a well known benefit of stretching?
		a. Increased muscular strength
		b. Improved balance
		c. Reduced muscle tension
		d. All of the above
Stretching a tissue can reduce its resting tension. This can be important in helping relieve the strain and stress of a muscular imbalance. If an individual, for example, has tight hamstrings, static stretching them can help reduce tension and result in a more stable pelvis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	You have a client who is interested in improving his muscular strength. He is young and healthy, with no known medical conditions and no history of injury. What prescription should you give him?
		a. Low reps and high weight
		b. Low reps and low weight
		c. High reps and high weight
		d. High reps and low weight
According to the intensity prescription guidelines, strength is most readily improved when prescribing heavy loads for a low number of reps. If reps and weight are high, the movement would not be able to be completed. If weight is low, then independent of reps, it will not increase strength very much because most type IIa and type IIx fibers will not be recruited for the movement. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Which muscular imbalances are related to tightness of the biceps brachii?
		a. Kyphosis
		b. Lordosis
		c. Both kyphosis and lordosis
		d. Neither kyphosis or lordosis
Kyphosis and lordosis both relate to anterior and posterior curvatures of the spine. The biceps brachii does not have a role in spinal stabilization. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	A client wishes to be as healthy as possible and also build muscle. What should you prescribe?
		a. A resistance training program
		b. A cardiorespiratory fitness program
		c. A flexibility and mobility program
		d. All of the above
In order to optimize a client's health and their quality of life, it is important to increase their fitness across all dimensions of health and wellness. Improving a client's cardiorespiratory health, flexibility, mobility, and muscular strength can all facilitate these ends. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	You notice your client, who has had 3 months of training experience and who has hypertension, is holding his breath during the concentric phase of heavy reps. What should you do?
		a. Allow him to hold his breath, given the increased intra-abdominal pressure helps produce more force at the involved joints during the rep.
		b. Recommend that he only hold his breath during hard reps since it helps performance.
		c. Advise not to hold his breath during hard reps because it can be bad for blood pressure.
		d. Advise not to hold his breath, and to breath as fast as possible so he can intake more oxygen to fuel active muscles during the set.
Never advise a client with hypertension to hold their breath during an exercise. This is called the valsalva maneuver, and although it can help improve intraset performance it can increase blood pressure during the set making the maneuver dangerous. It is also dangerous to breath as fast as possible since hyperventilation can disrupt homeostasis in the body. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	The pectoralis major is a primary antagonist of which movement listed below?
		a. The barbell bent over row
		b. The dumbbell bench press
		c. The incline shoulder press machine
		d. The barbell bicep curl
The pectoralis major is a primary antagonist of the barbell bent over row movement. An antagonist has the opposite joint action of the working muscle during a movement. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	Which exercise is most difficult neuromuscularly to coordinate and perform?
		a. The barbell decline bench press
		b. The Russian twist
		c. The barbell clean and jerk
		d. The dumbbell front raise
The barbell clean and jerk is a high power multi joint structural movement. It is typically considered an advanced technique and has to be performed fast in order to be performed properly. The barbell decline bench press is another multi joint movement, however less joints are involved in agonist action than the clean and jerk. The other two movements are single joint exercises. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	Your client wants to improve his grip strength. Which exercise listed below will least accomplish this?
		a. The dumbbell farmer's walk
		b. The barbell conventional deadlift
		c. The chin up
		d. The barbell overhead press
The barbell overhead press will do the least to help improve the client's grip strength. The movement is performed with the forearm inferior to the bar and the resistance force pointed in the direction of the forearm. The other movements involve the resistance force vector being oriented in the opposite way, challenging grip strength. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	What is periodization?
		a. A planned progression of resistance exercise that intentionally varies acute training variables.
		b. A method of adjusting training to meet with changes in rating of perceived exertion as client progresses.
		c. A form of varying distance between training days in exclusively aerobic training programs.
		d. A form of varying intensity between training days in exclusively anaerobic training programs.
This is the formal definition of the term periodization and it is non-specific to training modality. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	What should you take into account during exercise for a client taking beta blockers?
		a. Their resting and submax heart rate are higher, and you should take this into account in your programming.
		b. Their resting and submax heart rate are lower, and you should take this into account in your programming.
		c. Their resting and max heart rate are higher and you should take this into account in your programming.
		d. Their resting, submax, and max heart rate are lower and you should take this into account in your programming.
Beta blockers do not affect max heart rate. Instead, they decrease resting heart rate and heart rate at submaximal exercise activities. This is important to account for when programming because using beta blockers can make it appear as if a client is training at a lower intensity than they actually are. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	If a client has stage II hypertension, what should you avoid?
		a. Exercises that put their head below their heart
		b. Exercises that put their head above their heart
		c. Exercises that put their head in line with their heart
		d. Exercises that increase their heart rate
It is typically advised that clients with this condition maintain their head in line with or above their heart when training due to the effects of gravity on blood flow and distribution to different parts of the body. Exercise inherently increases heart rate due to increased oxygen demands so it is almost impossible to not increase heart rate during exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	If a client has diabetes, when should you avoid exercise?
		a. During periods of peak insulin activity
		b. When insulin activity levels out
		c. When they are in a fed state
		d. Early in the morning
If a client has diabetes, it is actually better to train in a fed state than an unfed state given they are less likely to be hypoglycemic. When insulin activity is peaked, diabetics should avoid exercise to prevent interfering with glucose reuptake into active cells. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Which rule for progression in a resistance training program can be considered a gold standard?
		a. The five by five rule
		b. The ACE rule
		c. The two for two rule
		d. The volume rule
The two for two rule is the only real rule in this list. It is a standard for progression in programming. If an individual can perform 2 reps more than prescribed for an exercise 2 training sessions in a row, then they can increase the load used on the subsequent training day. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	What exercise should you not spot?
		a. The barbell flat bench press
		b. The barbell bent over row
		c. The barbell overhead press
		d. The barbell incline bench press
Movements that are performed over the face or head and carry risk to the trainee should be spotted. The barbell bent over row is not a high-risk movement and it is not performed over the face or head. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	Which movement is not dangerous to spot?
		a. The barbell high pull
		b. The barbell snatch
		c. The barbell back squat
		d. The barbell power clean
Movements that are considered high power movements and have to be performed quickly to be performed correctly are not safe to spot. They put both the client and trainer at greater risk by spotting them. The only movement listed that does not fall in this category is the barbell back squat. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	Personal trainers are obligated to do which of the following?
		a. Ensure that the facilities and workspaces are clear of unreasonable hazards.
		b. Ensure that clients have bathroom and water access.
		c. Both a and b, and ensuring that clients have access to the internet in case of emergency.
		d. Both a and b only.
Legally, it is not necessary to ensure clients have access to the internet. However, water access, bathroom access, and maintenance of a space free of unreasonable hazards are all obligated duties of the personal trainer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	To protect yourself legally, and the client, when should you supervise your client?
		a. During all working sets
		b. At all times in the gym, including between sets.
		c. During heavy or dangerous working sets only.
		d. Never, it is not mandatory to supervise.
It is not necessary to supervise a client between sets. During any working set, however, the client should be supervised and spotted if appropriate. This level of supervision should also persist during warm up sets. Even if risk is minimal, each set and each repetition performed at any intensity carry some form of risk. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	If a risk is highly severe and occurs seldomly, what should you do?
		a. Transfer
		b. Implement
		c. Evaluate
		d. Increment
According to the ACE strategies for risk management, it is recommended that risk be transferred when a risk is highly severe but occurs seldomly. It can only be transferred because it occurs infrequently, and is not worth confronting directly due to its severity. Transferring risk means to shift pure risk from one group (typically yourself) to another (typically an insurance company). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which of the following should be easily accessible in your facility at all times?
		a. A food station
		b. An AED
		c. An EMT
		d. A physical therapist
An automated external defibrillator (AED) should always be accessible during any personal training session in case an acute cardiac event occurs. Because all ACE certified personal trainers are required to be certified in first aid, CPR, and AED, there should always be a trained individual able to operate the AED if a cardiac event were ever to occur. Having an EMT or physical therapist nearby at all times is unrealistic, and a food station is unnecessary. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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