2024 Edition

NSCA-CPT Practice Exam

Take this free NSCA Certified Personal Trainer practice exam to get an idea of the type of questions that appear on the actual certification exam.

The NSCA Certified Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 155 multiple-choice questions based on four subject areas. These subject areas are as follows:

Client Consultation and Assessment
Program Planning
Techniques of Exercise
Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues

For complete practice, check out the NSCA-CPT Practice Exam Kit with 400 questions and fully explained answers. It was written by Amanda Chismar and Christy Hamilton, certified personal trainers and health and fitness writers, holding certifications as NSCA Certified Personal Trainers.

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Client Consultation and Assessments

1.	Which of the following is a questionnaire that serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise?
		a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
		b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire
		c. Health History Questionnaire
		d. Liability Waiver
The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to moderate intensity training. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	In which situation should the trainer refer the client to a dietitian?
		a. Bill wants advice on losing 100 pounds
		b. Shelly would like to learn how to eat healthier
		c. Bob has cardiovascular disease and would like to lose 30 pounds
		d. Gina is interested in cutting calories to lose weight
Personal trainers should refer their clients to a dietitian if the client is in a disease state. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?
		a. Evidence of disclosure.
		b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience.
		c. Detailed medical and health information.
		d. Fitness measurement data.
The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual's health background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	What information does the Informed Consent form collect?
		a. Evidence of disclosure.
		b. Previous exercise history.
		c. Detailed medical and health information.
		d. Fitness measurement data.
The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their "assumption of risk", serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. It does not release liability. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
		a. 130/70 mmHg
		b. 120/80 mmHg
		c. 121/81 mmHg
		d. 140/90 mmHg
An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	Which of the following is outside of the scope of practice for a personal trainer to do during their initial consultation with a new client?
		a. Prescribe a target amount of protein for the client to consume each day.
		b. Prescribe a target number of steps for the client to walk each day.
		c. Recommend a variety of healthy food options that the client can incorporate into their week.
		d. Recommend a variety of effective resistance training exercises that a client can incorporate into their workouts.
Personal trainers are not licensed and registered dietitians, so it is outside of their scope of practice to prescribe specific dietary practices. A trainer who is not qualified to do this may cause more harm than good. Personal trainers, however, are able to make general recommendations in line with national guidelines. Their training and education allows them to make exercise-related prescriptions and recommendations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	In which of the following situations must a personal trainer refer a new client to their physician for medical clearance, prior to beginning a new aerobic training program?
		a. The client has a history of severe depression
		b. The client has a history of severe cardiovascular disease
		c. The client has type II diabetes
		d. The client has asthma
Of the above options, it is only necessary to get medical clearance for a client who has severe cardiovascular disease. The health risk of exercising with severe cardiovascular disease outweighs the health risk of not engaging in regular exercise. Aerobic exercise performed safely under the supervision of a qualified personal trainer will be more helpful than harmful for all of the other conditions listed above. If a client ever shares that they feel uncomfortable about exercising without physician advice, it is always appropriate to encourage the client to contact their physician if they independently want to do so. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	A female client is 200 pounds and has 30% bodyfat. How much fat free mass does this client's body contain?
		a. 30 pounds
		b. 100 pounds
		c. 140 pounds
		d. 170 pounds
Bodyfat percentage is a measure of the amount of fat a client has, relative to their total bodyweight: Body weight x percent of bodyfat = Bodyfat in lbs. This means the above client has 60 pounds of fat, because 200 * 0.3 = 60. All body mass that is not fat mass is considered fat free mass. So, 200 - 60 = 140. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	A client shares that they have not exercised in the most recent 12 months. However, they share that they exercised for a consistent three year period over 10 years ago. How would you classify this client?
		a. Beginner
		b. Intermediate
		c. Advanced
		d. Elite
A client's training status should be based on that client's most recent training history. This client would be more similar to a traditional beginner when considering neuromotor and behavioral factors. Beginners have less than 2 months of recent training experience, intermediate clients have between 2 and 6 months of recent experience, and advanced clients have greater than one year of recent experience. "Elite" is not an official training status category. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	Which of the following is important to build during your initial consultation with a client?
		a. An effective diet plan
		b. Exercise self-efficacy
		c. An effective workout plan
		d. Rapport
It's important to focus on sociobehavioral aspects of the trainer-client relationship during your initial meeting. This is more important than inducing physiologic adaptation. Building rapport and trust with a client will increase your client's exercise adherence, and will enable them to more readily adhere to your exercise prescription later on in the client-trainer relationship. Rapport is the most important thing to focus on building before all other sociobehavioral aspects of the trainer-client relationship. Developing an effective workout plan should be handled outside of the initial consultation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	A client who comes to you and plans to begin exercising in the next 30 days is in which of the following stages of change?
		a. Precontemplation
		b. Contemplation
		c. Preparation
		d. Action
They are in the preparation stage, the period of time where someone plans to take action in the near future but has not done so yet. Clients who are in the precontemplation and contemplation stages would not have begun taking steps towards working with a trainer in the near future by definition. If someone does not think they want to ever engage in exercise they are in the precontemplation stage. If they think they will eventually do so but have no active plans to do so, they are in the contemplation stage. Clients in the action stage are engaging in exercise currently. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	A client shares that they feel most motivated to exercise when their success is verbally affirmed by others. What type of behavioral feedback is this?
		a. Positive punishment
		b. Negative punishment
		c. Positive reinforcement
		d. Negative reinforcement
This refers to positive reinforcement, when a behavior is upregulated by giving an individual a reward. The reward in this case is verbal affirmation. Negative reinforcement refers to a behavior being upregulated by taking away a punishment. Positive punishment refers to a behavior being downregulated by giving a punishment. Negative punishment refers to a behavior being downregulated by taking away a reward. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Program Planning

13.	ATP is resynthesized from ___________ in the phosphagen system.
		a. AMP + ATP
		b. ADP + Pi
		c. Creatine Kinase + Pi
		d. Lactate + Glucose
When ATP is broken down at the end of fast glycolysis, it is broken down to ADP. Stored phosphate ions can be used to resynthesize ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP. This allows for muscle activity to continue slightly longer than if resynthesis didn't occur. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	What is the correct sequence of connective tissue found within the muscle from largest to smallest?
		a. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium
		b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
		c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
		d. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
This shows the order of connective tissues from largest to smallest. Epimysium encases the muscle, perimysium acts as connective tissue between muscle fibers and endomysium encases each single muscle fiber, or cell. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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15.	What is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory?
		a. Amino acids
		b. Fatty acids
		c. Creatine phosphate
		d. Adenosine triphosphate
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	What is considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle?
		a. Muscle fiber
		b. Actin
		c. Myosin
		d. Sarcomere
The sarcomere is found within each muscle fiber (cell) and contains both actin and myosin. It is considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	Torque produces ___________________.
		a. Angular velocity
		b. Linear acceleration
		c. Angular acceleration
		d. Force
Torque produces angular acceleration, while force creates linear acceleration. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	What is the biomechanical definition of Work?
		a. Mass x acceleration
		b. Distance x time
		c. Force x distance
		d. Force x time
Work is the product of force times the distance through which an object moved. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	What is the upward phase of a bodyweight squat?
		a. Eccentric
		b. Isometric
		c. Concentric
		d. Isokinetic
The concentric phase of contraction occurs when agonist muscles are shortening. This is when muscle force is greater than the resistance force, enabling the body to accelerate in a positive direction. This happens during a bodyweight squat as the individual's muscles overcome the resistance force of their bodyweight and gravity. The eccentric phase is when the muscle is lengthening and the isometric phase is when there is no change in muscle length. A movement is isokinetic when it occurs at a fixed velocity throughout the range of motion, but this is usually limited to special equipment like an isokinetic dynamometer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	Which of the following muscles is an agonist during the pull up?
		a. Anterior Deltoid
		b. Quadratus Femoris
		c. Soleus
		d. Latissimus Dorsii
The Latissimus Dorsii is responsible for shoulder adduction and shoulder extension during the pull up. This produces the force necessary to complete the movement. The other muscles listed do not contribute to producing force for joint actions necessary to complete the pull up. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	Which of the following muscles is an antagonist during the bench press?
		a. Triceps Brachii
		b. Pectoralis Major
		c. Serratus Anterior
		d. Posterior deltoid
The Triceps Brachii, Pectoralis Major, and Serratus Anterior all contribute to producing the force necessary to complete the movement and are agonist muscles. The posterior deltoid involves muscle action that opposes the agonist actions involved in the bench press, so it is an antagonist muscle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	Which of the following is true of a skeletal muscle fiber?
		a. It is multinucleated
		b. It is found in lung tissue
		c. It is found in kidney tissue
		d. All of the above
Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated. As muscles hypertrophy, more nuclei get added to support their increased growth and size. Muscle tissue found in organs like the lung or kidney are considered smooth muscle tissue and not skeletal muscle tissue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	Which of the following is the equation for power?
		a. Work * time
		b. Work / time
		c. Force * distance
		d. Force / distance
Power is determined by dividing work by time. Work itself is force multiplied by distance. In practice this means that more powerful movements involve producing large amounts of force over a given distance quickly. Less powerful movements are slower. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	Which of the following describes a muscle fiber splitting in order to increase muscle size?
		a. Hypertrophy
		b. Hypertension
		c. Hypotension
		d. Hyperplasia
Muscle hyperplasia refers to a muscle fiber splitting, increasing muscle size. This accounts for most or all muscle growth in most situations, as most muscle growth is driven by muscle hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is where a muscle fiber increases in size, therefore increasing overall muscle size. Hypertension and hypotension refer to blood pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	Which of the following resting heart rates is considered to be within a normal range?
		a. 40 BPM
		b. 75 BPM
		c. 115 BPM
		d. 145 BPM
A normal range for resting heart rate is between 60 BPM and 100 BPM. In certain circumstances, lower heart rates may be referred to as brachycardia. Higher heart rates may be referred to as tachycardia. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	Which of the following is considered the monomer of stored muscle glycogen?
		a. Lactose
		b. Sucrose
		c. Glucose
		d. Maltose
Glucose is stored as a chain in the form of glycogen. It is therefore its basic building block; its monomer. When glycogen is broken down, the body will have access to its glucose components, which can be used to support ATP production through glycolysis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Which of the following is a type of programming best fit for a beginner?
		a. Linear periodization
		b. Nonlinear periodization
		c. Undulating periodization
		d. None of the above
Linear periodization is best for a beginner because it capitalizes on their ability to quickly adapt to stimuli. Linear periodization is regularly and consistently applying training stimuli of a similar type over a mesocycle. Nonlinear periodization and undulating periodization are two names for the same style of periodization, which is a better fit for a more advanced trainee. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Techniques of Exercise

28.	Nina has been training with you as a client over the past 4 months and wants to increase her muscular strength. Which of the following rep targets would be most appropriate for her goal?
		a. 3 reps
		b. 7 reps
		c. 10 reps
		d. 15 reps
Clients training for muscular strength should do so by focusing on training with 6 reps or less. Training in the 6-12 rep range would be most effective for hypertrophy. Training with 12-15 reps would be better for improving muscular endurance. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	A client is performing a superset. How many exercises will this client perform back to back before resting?
		a. One
		b. Two
		c. Three
		d. Four
A superset involves a client performing two exercises that involve antagonist muscle groups back to back without rest. Doing this for three exercises is considered a tri-set. Doing this for four is considered a giant set. There is no special name for performing one exercise at a time. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	A client is aiming to increase their jump height. Which of the following exercises will best support this?
		a. Power Snatch
		b. Pull Up
		c. Bench Press
		d. Barbell Curl
Under the principle of specificity, training with movements that involve similar muscles and patterns of force production to a sport-specific movement will be most effective. The power snatch involves producing large amounts of force quickly from various lower body muscles, which is similar to the demands of jumping. This makes it effective at increasing jump height. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	An elderly client begins an aerobic training program in addition to their current resistance training program. The client shares that they have osteoporosis in their knees and are unsure which aerobic activities are safest for them to perform. What should they focus on?
		a. Running
		b. Water Aerobics
		c. Stair Climbing
		d. Dancing
Water aerobics are generally considered safer for older clients and clients with osteoporosis. This is because they are low-impact. Running, stair climbing, and dancing all involve high ground reaction forces whenever the client steps into the ground forcefully. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Which of the following typically refers to around one week's worth of programming?
		a. Mesocycle
		b. Targeted Workout
		c. Macrocycle
		d. Microcycle
A microcycle refers to approximately one week of programming. A Targeted workout refers to just one workout. A Mesocycle refers to one or more months of programming. A Macrocycle refers to one or more years of programming. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	Which of the following energy systems is most relevant for a client interested in running marathons?
		a. Phosphagen
		b. Anaerobic Glycolysis
		c. Aerobic Glycolysis
		d. Oxidative Phosphorylation
Oxidative Phosphorylation is able to produce a large amount of ATP over a long period of time. It is not fast acting, so it is effective at providing energy for long-lasting activities that don't require large amounts of energy all at once. This is why emphasizing this energy system during training can benefit a client who is interested in running marathons. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
		a. Less than 30 seconds
		b. 30-90 seconds
		c. 2-5 minutes
		d. 30-60 seconds
A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between sets of a resistance exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing less results lately and is becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting when she has reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of repetitions?
		a. Decrease number of repetitions for a short period of time.
		b. Decrease resistance for a short period of time.
		c. Increase training frequency to more days per week.
		d. Change the exercise modality.
When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full genetic potential, introducing a new form of exercise will change the stimulus and force their body to continue changing. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	What is the general idea behind periodization?
		a. Changing the training exercise.
		b. Increasing resistance by 5%.
		c. Exercising the appropriate muscles.
		d. Varying training intensity and volume.
Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially volume and intensity, over specific segments of time. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?
		a. Training for muscular strength
		b. Training for hypertrophy
		c. Training for muscular endurance
		d. None of the above
When training for hypertrophy an individual performs a large number of exercises with short recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise. Therefore, when training for hypertrophy intensity increases are determined on an individual basis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?
		a. 2-3
		b. 3-4
		c. 4-6
		d. 4-7
An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and can train up to 7 if done properly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues

39.	Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?
		a. Presence of osteoporosis
		b. Joint swelling
		c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
		d. A healing fracture site
While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	When on the treadmill your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to take?
		a. Go to a phone and call 911.
		b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
		c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
		d. Begin CPR.
It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your client. You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are somewhere life threatening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?
		a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink and monitor him.
		b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the exercise, monitoring him.
		c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink.
		d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.
You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to eat or drink as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be monitored in case he loses consciousness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and in which order?
		a. Circulation, breathing and airway
		b. Breathing, airway and circulation
		c. Airway, breathing and circulation
		d. Airway, circulation and breathing
The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will ensure that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	You are training a client with Epilepsy and he begins having a seizure on the leg press machine. Which of the following is an appropriate action to take?
		a. Restrain him so he does not fall
		b. Put your pen in his mouth to keep him from biting his tongue
		c. Administer the client's medication
		d. Assist him to the ground if necessary
Assisting a client to the ground and placing him or her in a prone or side-lying position is an option. The rest are not acceptable. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Which of the following is true of ballistic stretching?
		a. It is unsafe
		b. It increases muscular strength
		c. It is effective at burning calories
		d. All of the above
It is an unsafe form of stretching. This is because bouncing at the end of a joint's range of motion can cause injury and this risk of injury outweighs the potential benefits of ballistic stretching, which is increasing joint flexibility. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	When should an AED be used on an individual who is receiving CPR?
		a. As soon as possible
		b. After 4 rounds of CPR
		c. After 8 rounds of CPR
		d. Never
An AED should be used as soon as it is ready. This will increase the individual's odds of survival. This is why it is important for an AED to be prepped by someone nearby you, as you are performing CPR. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	A healthy client shares that they haven't eaten before beginning a workout with you and that they are feeling lightheaded. Which of the following may help?
		a. Provide the client with a high protein snack
		b. Provide the client with a low sugar snack
		c. Provide the client with a high sugar snack
		d. Provide the client with a low protein snack
Healthy clients who do not eat before working out and feel lightheaded may be experiencing hypoglycemia. This can be addressed by providing the client's body with glucose quickly, for instance in the form of a high sugar snack. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	What does the R in RICE stand for?
		a. Remove
		b. Recover
		c. Rest
		d. Remedy
RICE is an acronym that can help you remember which steps to perform to address pain and swelling related to an acute injury. Resting an injury will allow it to heal faster. The I stands for Ice, the C stands for Compress, and the E stands for Elevate. Doing all four will significantly improve recovery time. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	What is the first step to take when approaching an individual who appears passed out?
		a. Shout for help
		b. Call 911
		c. Check to make sure the scene is safe
		d. Approach the individual
It is important to first check to make sure the scene is safe. This information is helpful as it provides you with useful context about what may be going on and what actually happened. This information can help inform your next action. It is also important to note that calling 911 when you suspect that someone is experiencing a medical emergency can help save someone's life. Calling will allow for professionals with advanced support to arrive and increase the odds of the person receiving the help and care they need. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	As a personal trainer, in which of these situations would you most likely need to purchase insurance?
		a. When working for a local gym
		b. When working for yourself
		c. When working for a sports team
		d. Never
Most facilities and organizations in the fitness industry automatically cover their employees under their own insurance. If you work as an independent trainer, you are not covered under a company's insurance policy, so it is important for you to acquire your own. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which of the following is considered an inappropriate distance between pieces of exercise equipment?
		a. 2 feet
		b. 7 feet
		c. 12 feet
		d. 20 feet
While there is no maximum distance, it is important for there to be at least several feet of walking space between each piece of equipment. This allows for the exercise environment to be consistent with industry standards. This also allows for gym goers to safely travel between equipment, even when it is in use. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Amanda Chismar

is a NSCA certified personal trainer and prior owner of a CrossFit gym. She has also managed fitness centers for various government agencies, including the military and law enforcement. Amanda is also certified as a NASM Corrective Exercise Specialist, CrossFit Level 2 Trainer and as a USAW Sports Performance Coach. She received her Bachelors of Science in Kinesiology from Penn State University.

Christy Hamilton

is an NSCA certified personal trainer and health and fitness writer.. She is also a group fitness instructor and ACSM inclusive fitness trainer.

The NSCA Certified Personal Trainer certification is for professionals who work with both active and sedentary clients in one-on-one situations.

Exam content covers:

Client Consultation/

Assessment:

Initial Interview

Health Appraisal

Medical History Review

Fitness Evaluation

Basic Nutrition

Weight management

Program Planning: