2024 Edition

ACE Personal Trainer Practice Exam

Take this free ACE Personal Trainer practice exam to get an idea of the type of questions that appear on the actual certification exam.

The ACE Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 150 multiple-choice questions based on 4 subject areas. These subject areas are broken down as follows:

Client Onboarding and Assessments
Program Design and Implementation
Program Modifications and Progression; and
Risk Management, Professional Conduct and Ethical Business Conduct.

For complete practice, check out the ACE Practice Exam Kit with 750 questions and fully explained answers. It was coauthored by health and fitness writers Christy Hamilton and Susan Hill, who have both been ACE Certified Personal Trainers.

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Interviews and Assessments

1.	In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered?
		a. Rapport Stage
		b. Investigation Stage
		c. Planning Stage
		d. Action Stage
The investigation stage occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan?
		a. Planning Stage
		b. Action Stage
		c. Rapport Stage
		d. Investigation Stage
When you are first meeting a client and verbal and non-verbal communication are extremely important to consider, you are in the rapport stage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin?
		a. Rapport Stage
		b. Planning Stage
		c. Investigation Stage
		d. Action Stage
This is an example of gathering information, which you should do before the planning stage. This is part of the investigation stage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	What can submaximal cycle ergometer testing predict?
		a. VO2max
		b. Body Mass Index
		c. Body Fat Percent
		d. All of the above
Submax cycle ergometer testing is a form of graded exercise test and not able to assess body composition, height, or weight. It is typically used to predict values of physiological variables at maximal exercise, like VO2max. VO2max is the greatest amount of oxygen an individual can consume per minute. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?
		a. Core Function
		b. Balance
		c. Static Posture
		d. Health Related Assessments
It is considered best to test a client's static posture after taking resting measures but before getting into training. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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6.	In which stage of the Theoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle?
		a. Contemplation
		b. Preparation
		c. Precontemplation
		d. Action
A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	Your client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Theoretical Model of Behavioral Change, what stage of change is your client in?
		a. Contemplation
		b. Preparation
		c. Precontemplation
		d. Action
In the precontemplation phase people are beginning to understand the implications of being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	A 55 year old sedentary man, with a family history of smoking and diabetes mellitus comes to your studio, looking for a personal trainer. However, he states during his health history evaluation that he has no signs or symptoms of cardiovascular disease. Which risk category for cardiovascular disease would he fall under?
		a. Low
		b. Moderate
		c. High
		d. Very High
Given the individual has 2 or more risk factors for cardiovascular disease, but is asymptomatic with no past history of cardiovascular disease, he is placed in the moderate category. If an individual has less than 2 risk factors they will be placed in the low risk category. If they are symptomatic or have a history of cardiovascular disease they are placed in the high category. The very high category does not exist. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Which of the following is an example of what is generally measured in a physiologic assessment?
		a. Resting vital signs
		b. Joint flexibility
		c. Psychological mood
		d. Both resting vital signs and joint flexibility
Psychological mood is not measured in a physiologic assessment given it is a psychometric variable. However, resting vital signs (such as heart rate and blood pressure) as well as joint flexibility are measured. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	Which of the following environmental testing conditions can most confound results of a physiologic assessment?
		a. An ambient air temperature of 96 degrees Fahrenheit
		b. An ambient air temperature of 80 degrees Fahrenheit
		c. Time of day being 10 am
		d. Time of day being 7 pm
Given physiologic assessments consist of measuring vital signs, environmental factors that influence the body's hemodynamics should be taken into account. Time of day would not inherently affect this, however temperature may. If ambient temperature is much higher than core body temperature (96 degrees Fahrenheit) then heart rate among other measures will be affected. 80 degrees Fahrenheit is close enough to core body temperature that it would not meaningfully influence physiology in a way that confounds the assessment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	During initial assessments, a client's pulse can be manually taken at all of the following locations except:
		a. Radial artery
		b. Carotid artery
		c. Dorsalis pedis
		d. Pulmonary artery
The pulmonary artery is a deep artery and cannot be palpated manually. The other three are superficial and can thus be felt and measured by the hands. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	Which method of feedback on exercise difficulty should you discuss with your client during the initial interview?
		a. The Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale
		b. The Naughton Protocol
		c. The Duke Nomogram
		d. The Karvonen Method
The only method of feedback listed is the Borg scale. This scale is used to measure the perceived difficulty of exercises and can help gauge relative intensity of movements. This is important to cover with a client during the initial interview because it is an informative feedback tool. The Naughton protocol is designed for GXT performance. The Duke Nomogram is a normative rating scale for physiological parameters that predicts morbidity. The Karvonen method is a method of predicting max heart rate based on age. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Program Design and Implementation

13.	Which of the following is typically considered by clients to be the most important factor in creating a positive first impression?
		a. A trainer who is in good shape.
		b. A trainer who communicates well.
		c. A trainer who offers to listen to his or her home-life problems.
		d. A trainer who has good posture and appears sure of themselves.
Based on study of client-feedback, the most important aspect of a good first impression consisted of a trainer listening and being genuinely interested in what they had to say. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	What is an example of non-verbal communication?
		a. Tone of voice.
		b. Facial expression.
		c. Body language.
		d. All of the above.
		e. Both B and C only
Tone of voice, facial expressions and body language can all effect how a client views and hears you, regardless of what you are saying. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	Saying things like, "I understand, 125 feels like your ideal weight." Is an example of which positive listening skill?
		a. Encouraging
		b. Planning
		c. Questioning
		d. Paraphrasing
Paraphrasing is a great way to show the client that you are listening as well as to make sure you are hearing what they are saying correctly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	Which of the following is an example of a good open-ended question?
		a. Do you feel that you are ready to begin a fitness program?
		b. Do you have any questions about personal training?
		c. Are there any exercises that you dislike?
		d. What made you decide to pursue personal training?
Any question that requires an answer other than "yes" or "no" is an open-ended question and keeps the conversation going. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	You have been working with Judy for 1 month now. Her initial goals were to gain strength in her lower body and you have been working on body weight squats and lunges. She can perform 3 sets of 15 squats without a struggle. What is the best course of action to continue to increase her lower body strength significantly?
		a. Continue with the program as it is.
		b. Add resistance to her squats and lunges.
		c. Increase the number of squats to 20 repetitions per set.
		d. Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.
Adding resistance is the next step in strength increase. This will produce significant results in lower body strength as opposed to increasing repetitions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	When prescribing static stretches during a resistance training workout, when should the static stretches be performed?
		a. Immediately before the workout
		b. Between exercises during the workout
		c. Immediately following the workout
		d. Both before and after the workout
Static stretches should not be performed before or during a workout given they inhibit the myotatic reflex and reduce performance. Performing static stretches post workout when muscles are warm will allow flexibility to increase without compromising workout quality. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	Which of the following movements should be performed first on an upper body day in a resistance training program?
		a. Barbell biceps curl
		b. Barbell lying triceps extension
		c. Barbell bench press
		d. Barbell back squat
When sequencing movements in a resistance training program, compound multi joint movements should be performed before single joint movements. Both the barbell biceps curl and barbell lying triceps extension are single joint movements for the upper body, meaning they should not be performed first. The barbell back squat is a lower body movement meaning it should not be performed on this training day. The only listed compound upper body movement is the barbell bench press. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	A client wants to increase the strength of her upper back muscles. Which of the following exercises will help the least with this goal?
		a. The barbell bent over row
		b. The barbell high pull
		c. The face pull
		d. The seated machine back extension
The face pull and barbell bent over row involve training the rhomboids and rear deltoids, among other upper back muscles. The barbell high pull is driven by the upper trapezius, which is a muscle of the upper back. The seated machine back extension is driven by the erector spinae and other lower back muscles, with none of its agonists being anatomically located on the upper back. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	A 38 year old male client wants to improve his body composition, and comes to you for assistance. He works 60 hours a week in a high stress job and is also a father of a young baby. Due to this, the client has limited availability for training and can only meet twice per week with you to train. Which of the following is most helpful in achieving his goals for you prescribe?
		a. Two days per week of aerobic training
		b. Two days of circuit resistance training
		c. Two days of resistance training with low reps and high workloads
		d. One day of aerobic training, and one day of resistance training with heavy loads
Training with heavy or high work-loads and low reps will primarily help increase muscular strength, and not facilitate much change in body composition. Similarly, aerobic training can help increase total daily energy expenditure making fat loss easier, but it is not the best choice given it does not promote an improvement in body composition through increasing fat free mass. Circuit training both promotes hypertrophy and increases total daily energy expenditure, helping improve body composition in multiple ways and making it the best choice. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	A 23 year old female client wants to begin a resistance training program with you to optimize her health and wellbeing, while building muscle. Which intensity prescription should you focus on?
		a. 30-50% 1RM
		b. 50-60% 1RM
		c. 60-70% 1RM
		d. 70-80% 1RM
According to prescription guidelines, this is the ideal range for this type of client to build muscle and is the best of the options listed. The client being female does not impact prescription recommendations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	Your client has a goal of increasing multiple effort power. How many repetitions should she perform during the typical set?
		a. 1-2
		b. 3-5
		c. 6-10
		d. 11-15
To increase multiple effort power, 3-5 reps should be performed. 1-2 reps only improve single effort power, and sets of 6 or greater are not associated with increases in power. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	How long should your client rest between sets when training for muscular endurance?
		a.
		b. 30-90 seconds
		c. 2-5 minutes
		d. It doesn't matter.
According to prescription guidelines, rest periods for muscular endurance training programs should be kept under 30 seconds. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	What is an example of the "tell, show, do" technique used in the early stages of training?
		a. Telling your client to show you how to correctly perform an exercise.
		b. Showing your client proper form of every exercise and allowing them to try it on their own later.
		c. Explaining the proper way to perform an exercise, showing your client, and then allowing them to try the exercise.
		d. Watching the client perform the exercise and giving feedback about the proper form.
As a trainer you should always explain how to perform the exercise and show your client how it should look before they perform it. You should also allow them to try it immediately after, while you are with them. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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Program Modification and Progression

26.	Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
		a. Less than 30 seconds
		b. 30-90 seconds
		c. 2-5 minutes
		d. 30-60 seconds
A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between sets of a resistance exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Bob is a 30-year-old man looking to increase muscular endurance for distance running. How long should he rest in between sets on the leg extension machine?
		a. Less than 30 seconds
		b. 30-90 seconds
		c. 2-5 minutes
		d. 30-60 seconds
When training for muscular endurance, a rest interval of less than 30 seconds in between sets of resistance exercise is optimal. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	Andrew is a 35-year-old man who is looking to increase strength in his upper body. How long should he rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?
		a. Less than 30 seconds
		b. 30-90 seconds
		c. 2-5 minutes
		d. 30-60 seconds
When training for muscular strength or power a person should rest for a good 2-5 minutes between sets of resistance exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability, what exercise modality should come first in the progression?
		a. A sequence of movements in alternating planes with contralateral limbs raised off the floor.
		b. Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor.
		c. Frontal plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.
		d. Transverse plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.
A sequence of controlled shoulder movements with one arm raised an inch off the ground is an appropriate beginning exercise for core stability. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?
		a. 2-3
		b. 3-4
		c. 4-6
		d. 4-7
An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and can train up to 7 if done properly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	Bill is training at 80-90% of his 1 repetition maximum on leg press. How long should he typically wait before training his legs again?
		a. 24 hours
		b. 36 hours
		c. 48 hours
		d. 72 hours
While it is recommended to wait 48 hours in between general resistance training sessions, when training at a workload as high as 80-90% of a client's 1RM it is recommended to wait 72 hours before working the muscle group again. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Which of the following variables can be adjusted to account for progression in a standard resistance training or cardiorespiratory exercise program?
		a. Volume
		b. Frequency
		c. Intensity
		d. All of the above
All of these variables fall within the FITT-VP designation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	Which increase in intensity is standard in a linear progression model for a novice or intermediate trainee?
		a. 2.5%
		b. 5%
		c. 10%
		d. 15%
According to progression guidelines, 5% is the standard amount. Progressing slower is not necessary and progressing faster will lead to stalling very quickly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	What phenomena can be expected as an individual progresses from an intermediate to advanced trainee?
		a. Specificity
		b. Reversibility
		c. Diminishing returns
		d. Periodization
As a trainee adapts, they can expect to encounter diminishing returns. The amount of muscular hypertrophy and overall adaptation that occurs due to training will lessen the more adapted an individual is. Trainees will adapt much more during their first 6 months of training than they will 2-3 years into training. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	What are the three levels of a periodized program?
		a. Microcycles, mesocycles, and macrocycles
		b. Microcycles, mesocycles, and megacycles
		c. Minicycles, mediocycles, and megacycles
		d. Minicycles, mediocycles, and macrocycles
These are the three levels of a periodized program. The other terms do not exist. A periodized program is an exercise program designed in a systematic way with pre-planned progressive variation to optimally facilitate chronic adaptations to resistance training. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	How long should an entire periodized program last?
		a. One training day
		b. One week
		c. One month
		d. Multiple months
One week is typically the duration of a microcycle, and one month is typically the duration of a mesocycle. A macrocycle, the entire duration of a program, can last several months or longer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	Which is not a phase in the ACE integrated training model?
		a. Stability and mobility training
		b. Movement training
		c. Load training
		d. Heart training
Heart training is not a phase of the ACE integrated training model nor is it a phase in any other well-known reputable training model. Stability and mobility training emphasizes minimizing muscular imbalances and postural deviations. Movement training focuses on dynamic range of motion and familiarization with motor patterns. Load training introduces higher intensity resistance training to stimulate chronic muscular adaptations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	What intensity should aerobic exercise be prescribed at for individuals with type II diabetes?
		a. 30-50% of HRR
		b. 50-80% of HRR
		c. 80-90% of HRR
		d. 90-100% of HRR
This is the prescription parameter for individuals with type II diabetes. When working with a special population, it is important to prioritize prescription parameters for that specific population over general prescription guidelines. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management

39.	Which of the following is within the ACE personal trainer's scope of practice?
		a. Advising a client on which types of supplements to take.
		b. Giving relationship advice to a client.
		c. Assisting a client in setting realistic fitness goals.
		d. Gently massaging a client's sore muscle.
ACE personal trainers need to stay within their scope of practice, which includes helping a client set goals, in order to keep the client safe and avoid legal issues. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	Which of the following is appropriate according to the ACE personal trainer's scope of practice?
		a. Diagnosing a client's ankle injury.
		b. Massaging a client's shoulder.
		c. Teaching a client self myo-fascial releasing techniques.
		d. Setting up a calorie-restricted diet plan for a client.
Teaching self-massage is a hands-free way to help a client reduce muscle soreness, thus staying within the ACE personal trainer's scope of practice. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	An ACE certified personal trainer must complete how many continuing education hours in what period of time to keep their certification active?
		a. 10 hours in 1 year
		b. 20 hours in 2 years
		c. 20 hours in 1 year
		d. 10 hours in 2 years
An ACE certified personal trainer must complete 20 hours of continuing education study in a two year time period to keep one's certification active. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	Which of the following is NOT a symptom of inflammation at a joint?
		a. Pain
		b. Warmth
		c. Increased range of motion
		d. Loss of function
A person suffering from inflammation will experience decreased range of motion at that joint due to swelling. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?
		a. Presence of osteoporosis
		b. Joint swelling
		c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
		d. A healing fracture site
While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Which of the following is a form that notifies the client of the risk associated with exercise?
		a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
		b. Health History Questionnaire
		c. Informed Consent form
		d. Liability Waiver
An informed Consent form notifies the participant of the risk of injury associated with exercise. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	Where should you spot a dumbbell movement?
		a. At the elbows
		b. At the forearms
		c. At the wrists
		d. At the shoulders
When spotting a dumbell movement, it is important to spot at the joint most proximal to the dumbbell which is the wrist. It is a very common mistake for newer trainers to spot at the elbows, but this is dangerous. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	When spotting a barbell where should your hands be?
		a. By your sides, ready to react when needed.
		b. Immediately behind the client, with hands on the barbell at all times.
		c. Immediately behind the client, with hands on the barbell only when the client is struggling.
		d. Immediately behind the client with hands just below the barbell, but not touching it, only touching the barbell when the client is at risk.
When spotting, it is important to not put hands on the barbell unless the client is about to fail the movement or is at immediate risk. By guiding the barbell with your hands, you interfere with the client's movement pattern and interfere with their proprioception of the movement so this should be avoided. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	Personal trainers often work as independent contractors. What individual type of insurance is most recommended to purchase when working as an independent contractor in the fitness industry?
		a. Liability insurance
		b. General insurance
		c. Health insurance
		d. No insurance is recommended as an independent contractor
Even if you are working entirely within your scope of practice and take all of the necessary precautions when working with a client, accidents still do happen. They are rare, but in the case that something does occur, it is best to purchase liability insurance for your own protection. If a client injures themselves during an exercise, they are likely to blame their trainer and liability insurance provides needed security. Most facilities require that trainers purchase their own individual liability insurance before beginning employment. However general insurance will not protect most personal trainers if a client gets hurt in the gym. While health insurance is beneficial in general, it is not as useful as liability insurance. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	Which of the following is not a method of managing risk?
		a. Avoidance
		b. Transfer
		c. Reduction
		d. Incrementing
Incrementing is not a method of managing risk. The other three options are all strategies for managing risk and are appropriate for different situations. Avoiding risk means minimizing or removing it from an environment. This can easily be done by purchasing and maintaining high quality equipment for your facility, and ensuring clients are always supervised when exercising. Risk reduction typically reduces the frequency of losses and having regular safety inspections can facilitate this. Transferring risk means to shift pure risk from one group (typically yourself) to another (typically an insurance company). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	What is an umbrella liability policy?
		a. A policy that covers multiple professional practices
		b. A policy that covers multiple people
		c. A policy that covers multiple types of insurances
		d. A standard liability policy
This is the definition of an umbrella liability policy. The other options are not the definition. Umbrella policies can cover numerous things, however both body and property insurance are commonly included in umbrella plans for personal trainers. If a client injures themselves performing a heavy barbell back squat by suddenly dropping the bar, they will likely incur bodily damage and potentially damage the barbell, the floor of your facility or the rack. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Personal trainers should learn to recognize clients who have eating disorders, such as bulimia and anorexia. In terms of professional responsibilities, which of the following should a personal trainer undertake as part of their practice with clients with eating disorders?
		a. Treat by recommending a diet plan
		b. Recommend the client consult a registered dietician
		c. Both a and b
		d. Neither a and b
Both bulimia and anorexia are common eating disorders that certified personal trainers may encounter in their profession. It is not within a personal trainer's scope of practice to treat either disorder. Registered Dieticians, not personal trainers, are trained to prescribe dietary plans to treat and manage medical or health conditions. It is common for trainers to forget this and begin prescribing diets based on the limited amount of nutritional knowledge they possess. Do not make this mistake. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Theresa McCabe

is a certified ACE personal trainer who has trained personal trainers as both a lecturer and program director for over twenty years. She has helped others prepare for the ACE exam through the Athletics and Fitness Association of America and has taught continuing education courses.

Dirk Timm

is an ACE certified personal trainer with over five years of experience as a personal trainer and fitness director and is a health and fitness writer through the Personal Training Development Center.

Christy Hamilton

is a health and fitness writer who held the ACE CPT for five years, as well as certifications as an NSCA Certified Personal Trainer and Group Fitness Instructor and ACSM Inclusive Fitness Trainer.

Susan Hill

is a health and fitness writer who held the ACE CPT for ten years and now focuses on golf fitness training and has worked and trained on tour.

The ACE Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 150 multiple-choice questions based on four subject areas. These subject areas are broken down as follows:

Interviews & Assessments

Program Design & Implementation

Program Modification and Progression

Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management

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