2025 Edition

MBLEx Practice Exam

Take our free MBLEx practice exams with challenging questions, fully explained answers and instant scoring.

The MBLEx is a standardized certification exam produced by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards and used by many states to license or certify massage therapists.

The massage exam sections below are based on actual exam sections: Anatomy and Physiology, Kinesiology, Pathology and Contraindications: Physiological Effects of Massage, Client Assessment, Ethics, Boundaries, Laws and Regulations and Guidelines for Professional Practice.

To prepare for the MBLEx, use our 1,000 question practice exam for the MBLEx authored by a team of instructors in the field of massage therapy.

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Anatomy & Physiology

1.	A client is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?
		a. She moves her arms away from her trunk.
		b. She moves her arms toward her trunk.
		c. She rotates her arms at the wrists while holding them toward her feet.
		d. She crosses her arms over her abdomen.
Abduction means to move away from the midline. Adduction means to add to the midline, or bring it closer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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2.	Which of the following suffixes indicate a sensitivity to pain?
		a. -itis
		b. -algesia
		c. -listhesis
		d. -asthenia
The suffix "-algesia" pertains to a condition in which the client is either very sensitive to pain (hyperalgesia) or has a difficulty perceiving pain (hypoalgesia). The prefix "-asthenia" may sound similar, but it pertains to a lack of strength. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	What type of joint would be affected by rotator cuff tendinitis?
		a. Synovial joint
		b. Fibrous joint
		c. Cartilaginous joint
		d. Sutures
Synovial joints are characterized by synovial fluid within the joint space. Types of synovial joints include gliding, condyloid, saddle, hinge, ball and socket, and pivot joints. Rotator cuff muscles include supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis. Inflammation of the rotator cuff tendons (tendinitis) would impede the range of motion in the shoulder, which is a ball and socket joint. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	This is an image of a long bone. The arrow is pointing to ________________.
		a. Periosteum
		b. Compact bone
		c. Spongy bone
		d. Epiphyseal line
The arrow points to an area of spongy bone tissue. Spongy bone has numerous open spaces separated and connected by trabeculae. This gives it greater strength and resilience and also decreases the overall weight of the skeleton. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	The kidneys are free floating organs that are held in place by adipose tissue in the thoracic area. What structure protects the kidneys from harm?
		a. Manubrium
		b. True ribs
		c. False ribs
		d. Floating ribs
The floating ribs attach on the spine but do not have any sternal attachments. The 11th and 12th floating ribs cover the kidneys to protect it from damage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	Which of the following muscles attach to the ischial tuberosity?
		a. Sartorius
		b. Quadriceps
		c. Hamstrings
		d. Extensor Hallucis Longus
The ischial tuberosity is the posterior portion of the ramus of the ischium, where body weight is supported. The hamstrings attach to the ischial tuberosity at the proximal end. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	You go outside into cold weather without a coat. Your body reacts to the exposure with goosebumps and shivers. These reactions are all an attempt to return your body to ____.
		a. Hemostasis
		b. Hypothermia
		c. Orthostatic Hypotension
		d. Homeostasis
Homeostasis is the balance or stability internally sought and maintained by the body no matter the external shifts. Hemostasis is the stopping of blood flow. Hypothermia is a dangerous state when the body gets too cold and is not able to produce adequate heat. Orthostatic Hypotension is the experience of dizziness or a faint feeling when standing up or coming upright due to low blood pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	A client has a hairline fracture in the left anterior, medial, distal femur. Where is this fracture located?
		a. The fracture is at the top of the femur where it connects to the iliac.
		b. The fracture is at the bottom of the femur behind the knee.
		c. The fracture is at the bottom of the inner femur, on the front of the bone.
		d. The fracture is at the top, outer part of the upper arm on the front of the shoulder.
The left anterior, medial, distal femur describes the area that is at the bottom of the inner femur, on the front of the bone. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Which of the following is not one of the organ systems of the body?
		a. Integumentary
		b. Chakra
		c. Urinary
		d. Endocrine
The organ systems of the body consist of the Respiratory, Cardiovascular/Circulatory, Digestive, Immune, Lymphatic, Skeletal, Muscular, Nervous, Reproductive, Renal, Integumentary, Urinary and Endocrine systems. Chakra names the energy wheels of the subtle body system. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	All of the following are anatomical planes of the body except:
		a. Distal Plane
		b. Transverse Plane
		c. Sagittal Plane
		d. Axial Plane
A distal plane does not exist. Distal is an anatomical term meaning something away from the center of the body or the point of attachment. The sagittal plane is a plane that divides the body into left and right parts. The transverse plane divides the body into inferior and superior parts. The axial plane is the same as the transverse plane. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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11.	The five bone types are:
		a. Long bones, medium bones, short bones, flat bones and round bones
		b. Long bones, short bones, flat bones, round bones and irregular bones
		c. Irregular bones, flat bones, sesamoid bones, long bones and short bones
		d. Irregular bones, regular bones, long bones, short bones, sagittal bones
There are no medium or round bones, and sagittal is a plane dividing the body into left and right sides. Here are examples of each of the five types of bones: • Flat bone - sternum, cranial bones, scapulae • Long bone - humerus, radius, femur, tibia • Short bone - tarsals, carpals • Irregular bone - vertebrae, sacrum • Sesamoid bone - patella Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	The scapula hosts many attachment sites. The lateral border is the attachment site for the:
		a. Teres major and Subscapularis
		b. Teres minor and Subscapularis
		c. Supraspinatus and Infraspinatus
		d. Teres major and Teres Minor
The lateral border of the scapula is the attachment site for the teres major and teres minor. The subscapularis attaches at the lesser tubercle and infraspinatus attaches to the anterior aspect of the scapula. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Kinesiology

13.	What muscle assists the prime mover by encouraging the same joint motion while helping to stabilize the moving joint?
		a. Antagonist
		b. Synergist
		c. Fixator
		d. Agonist
Synergists help the prime mover, or the agonist, and act on movable joints. An antagonist resists the agonist to move in the opposite direction. The fixator is a type of synergist that holds bones so tension can be used to move the agonist. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	While flexing the little toe, which muscle do we employ?
		a. Extensor hallucis brevis
		b. Flexor hallucis brevis
		c. Flexor digiti minimi brevis
		d. Abductor digiti minimi
The flexor digiti minimi brevis flexes the little toe. The extensor hallucis brevis extends the great toe. The flexor hallucis brevis flexes the great toe and the abductor digiti minimi abducts the little toe. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	This set of muscles perform the same actions and are synergists:
		a. Pectoralis Major and Pectoralis Minor
		b. Gluteus Medius and Gluteus Maximus
		c. Supraspinatus and Teres Minor
		d. Latissimus Dorsi and Teres Major
Both latissimus dorsi and teres major perform adduction, extension and medial rotation of the glenohumeral joint. Pectoralis major and minor act on two different joints. Gluteus medius and maximus have similar actions but gluteus medius also flexes the coxal joint. Both supraspinatus and teres minor hold the glenohumeral head in the glenoid cavity, but that's the only similarity with their actions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	An isolated contraction of which of the following is antagonistic to the action of vastus lateralis?
		a. Biceps femoris short head
		b. Gracilis
		c. Rectus femoris
		d. None of the above
Biceps femoris short head performs extension at the knee while vastus lateralis only performs extension of the knee. Gracilis performs adduction and medial rotation, while rectus femoris and vastus lateralis are two of the quadriceps muscles that extend the knee. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	Muscle spindles are most sensitive to what type of stimulus?
		a. Slow lengthening
		b. Rapid lengthening
		c. Alternating shortening and lengthening
		d. Sudden shortening
The muscle spindles are one of the proprioceptors that tell the brain where our body is in space by detecting muscle length. There is a stretch reflex when the muscle is stretched quickly. This is when the muscle spindle innervates a motor neuron to concentrically contract the stretching muscle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	The teres major is called this muscle's "little helper" as its synergist:
		a. Deltoid
		b. Latissimus Dorsi
		c. Pectoralis Major
		d. Rectus Abdominis
Both the teres major and latissimus dorsi adduct, medially rotate and extend the arm. The deltoids actions are abduction, flexion and medial rotation of the arm. The pectoralis major is responsible for flexion, extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm. The rectus abdominis is responsible for flexion of the vertebral column and abdominal compression. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	When performing a post isometric relaxation stretch the target muscle is lengthened until a mild stretch is felt. At that point the target muscle is contracted and then relaxed so the muscle can lengthen further. This is an example of innervating this proprioceptor:
		a. Meissner corpuscle
		b. Pacinian corpuscle
		c. Golgi tendon organ
		d. Muscle spindle
Golgi tendon organ detects increases in tension of a muscle to prevent injury. If muscle tension is substantial in relation to the amount of force the muscle can generate it inhibits the muscle's ability to contract. Utilizing this reflex allows one to increase a stretch without the muscle resisting it. The muscle spindle when stimulated contracts the muscle. The Meissner corpuscle detects slippage of skin. And the Pacinian corpuscle detects pressure and high vibration frequency in the skin. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Pathology & Contraindications

20.	When working with adult clients who are on the autism spectrum, which of the following must be taken into consideration?
		a. Lighting and sound levels
		b. Touch Pressure
		c. Communication
		d. All of the above
Many people on the autism spectrum suffer from sensory overload so the therapist should consider soft music, low lighting and possible visual communication. With the risk that the client's nervous systems could be overloaded with heightened sensations, the therapist should use proper pressure according to what the client can tolerate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	Olecranon bursitis occurs at which joint in the body?
		a. Knee
		b. Ankle
		c. Hip
		d. Elbow
Olecranon Bursitis is an inflammation of the bursa at olecranon process of the proximal aspect of the ulna. The function of the bursa is to cushion the structures around it, especially during movement. Stress to this area is typically caused by acute or repetitive trauma. The symptoms of Olecranon bursitis include pain, tenderness, local swelling, decreased movement and warmth of skin over the elbow. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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22.	A client complains of feeling cranky, being nervous, having frequent headaches, with a tingly feeling in her skin. She also has trouble sleeping. Of the following, which condition may be causing these symptoms?
		a. Anxiety
		b. ADHD
		c. Hyperglycemia
		d. Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia is a condition where a person's blood sugar level goes below normal levels. It is usually related to diabetes, but can be caused by other conditions. Treatment of the condition includes the eating of foods with a high sugar content or the taking of medications, to quickly return the blood sugar level to a normal range. Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar often associated with diabetes. Its main symptoms are being thirsty and frequent need to urinate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	Which of the following gender and age groups are most susceptible to osteoporosis?
		a. Women, ages 25-35
		b. Women, ages 50-60
		c. Men, ages 25-35
		d. Men, ages 50-60
While both men and women can be at risk for osteoporosis, women are at a much higher risk after menopause when estrogen and progesterone levels drop, reducing the amount of periosteum production on bones. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	A client presents with a small bulge at the bottom of his rib cage above his abdomen. The client tells you he has a hernia. What type of hernia does he have?
		a. Umbilical hernia
		b. Incisional hernia
		c. Hiatal hernia
		d. Inguinal hernia
A hiatal hernia occurs when the stomach bulges through the muscles separating the abdomen from the diaphragm due to weakened abdominal muscles. A small hiatal hernia usually does not cause problems but a large one can cause food and reflux to back up in the esophagus. The other types of hernias occur in other locations torso - umbilical (navel), inguinal (groin) and incisional (lower in the abdomen area). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	Which of the following is NOT an effective, safe massage treatment for someone with COPD?
		a. Tapotement of the posterior rib cage.
		b. Myofascial Release Therapy on the sternocleidomastoid, the scalenes and the suboccipitals.
		c. Lymphatic massage, especially in an advanced COPD.
		d. Focused neuromuscular release therapy for the latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior, intercostals and pectoralis muscles.
MRT is effective for those muscles and relaxing neck tension (which may indirectly help) but it is not necessarily a specific treatment for COPD. Tapotement of the posterior rib cage is good for helping break up and release some of the potential mucus build up. Working with the breathing muscles mentioned in answer option D will help loosen the muscles involved with breathing. During the advanced stages of COPD, lymphatic massage may help to move stagnant lymph and ease breathing. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	A new client's intake form states they have been diagnosed with Cataplexy. What does this mean?
		a. Pressure build up behind the eyes
		b. Weakness of the joints
		c. Temporary muscle weakness
		d. Trouble breathing while reclined
Cataplexy is an autoimmune disorder that results in temporary episodes of muscle weakness typically triggered by emotional reactions. Cataplexy is not related to pressure behind the eyes, weakness of the joints or with trouble breathing. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Physiological Effects of Massage

27.	A client informs the massage therapist that she has been feeling "stressed" lately. The therapist suggests the use of Swedish massage. What hormone is typically reduced during Swedish massage?
		a. Dopamine
		b. Serotonin
		c. Cortisol
		d. Oxytocin
During a massage the parasympathetic nervous system is activated suppressing the production of cortisol. During times of stress the sympathetic nervous system is active releasing the hormones adrenaline and cortisol preparing one to either fight or run - "Fight or Flight". Cortisol prepares the body by flooding it with glucose, supplying an immediate energy source to large muscles. It narrows arteries increasing blood pressure. It also inhibits insulin production to prevent glucose from being stored, favoring its immediate use. This leads to blood sugar imbalances and diabetes, weight gain and obesity, immune system suppression and gastrointestinal problems. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	During the repair phase of healing, stretching is a preferred technique. Why?
		a. Inflammation is still present.
		b. The focus is to break down the scar tissue.
		c. Want to allow scar formation.
		d. To create a mild inflammation.
The inflammatory phase has ended when the repair phase starts. In the repair phase, granular substance, collagen, and fibrinogen fill in the lesion and the formation of the scar begins, but it's too fragile for any vigorous techniques. So mild stretching and range of motion combined with MICE (movement, ice, compression, elevation) are indicated to help organize the fibers linearly. It's during the remodeling phase when more vigorous techniques are applied and the focus is to break down the scar tissue a little and create functional inflammation to strengthen the scar. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	Massage reduces blood pressure by simulating which of the following:
		a. Parasympathetic nervous system
		b. Sympathetic nervous system
		c. Muscular system
		d. Circulatory system
Massage reduces blood pressure by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system and getting a relaxation response. This innervates the vagus nerve and slows heart rate down while causing vasodilation reducing blood pressure over all. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	What is the physiology behind the feeling of wellbeing brought on by massage attributed to?
		a. Improved Immunity
		b. Triggering of Golgi Tendon Organs
		c. Heightened postural awareness
		d. Release of endorphins
The feelings of wellbeing are believed to result from the release of endorphins stimulated by the safe and caring touch of massage. While the other three answer options ring true, they are not the best answer for this question. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	Deep friction massage is indicated in which stage of healing?
		a. During the inflammation phase
		b. During the regeneration phase
		c. During the remodeling phase
		d. All of the above
Deep friction massage during the remodeling stage of healing helps form strong mobile scar tissue and break apart any inter fiber adhesions to help regain full painless ROM. Massage is generally locally contraindicated during the inflammation phase. During the repair or regeneration stage, it is important to work on range of motion which can help with oxygenation and circulation. Deep friction massage may create more or exacerbated injury as new fibers are still being created. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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Client Assessment

32.	During your intake interview, your client tells you that she has had lower back pain and she points to her lower left back area. In what section of the S.O.A.P. notes would this go?
		a. S
		b. O
		c. A
		d. P
S stands for "subjective", what your client tells you, like their chief complaint. Observations by the therapist would be placed in the Objective section. Any assessment techniques used by therapist and the results would be put in the Assessment section. Plan is what the therapist will do to treat the client, including the initial treatment and follow-up treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	While performing a postural analysis on a client you note that she is slumped forward with the palms of her hands facing the sides of her legs. This would indicate:
		a. Tight pectoralis major
		b. Tight latissimus dorsi
		c. Kyphosis
		d. Both a and b
Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi would not only slump the shoulders forward (rounded shoulders) but would also internally rotate the arm to the point that the palms are facing the front of the thigh. Your client's palms are facing the sides of the leg like they should, so the slump forward would indicate it is a spinal curve issue. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	While performing a deep tissue massage on a client, you notice the client's breathing change, almost like they are holding their breath. What is this an indication of?
		a. The client is asleep.
		b. You are not applying enough pressure.
		c. They are relaxing.
		d. The pressure is too much.
When a client is holding their breath they are not allowing their body to accept the treatment of deep pressure, and their body is actually resisting the work. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	A 30 year old client states that he has pes planus. How might this affect the client's body and movements?
		a. This will likely only have positive effects if any.
		b. The gait could be unstable causing back pain due to the collapsed arch.
		c. The posture and movement may be more rigid, s/he may even walk on tiptoes, due to more tension in the gastrocnemius.
		d. It may make it quite difficult to walk or sit upright at all.
Pes planus is the condition of having flatfoot, where the longitudinal arch is lower than in normal development. Having flat feet means there may be a collapse of the arch which will at some point likely cause an unstable gate and possible chronic back pain. The likelihood of it having positive effects is low. Pes planus creating a tendency toward plantar flexion or tiptoes is counterintuitive. Later in life, it may bring some more serious challenges, like making it difficult to walk or sit up in a serious stretch. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	Moving through initial client assessments, what is the best way for an LMT to get an accurate idea of a client's gait?
		a. Explain thoroughly what you are watching then have them walk back and forth across the room while you squat and stare at their feet and ankles.
		b. When you greet them have them take an extra lap around the waiting room before heading back to the treatment space.
		c. When you greet them give verbal instructions to the treatment space and gesture for them to lead. Then observe along the way.
		d. In the treatment space, have them do all sorts of different little tasks like high knees, getting something off the floor, and walking in place.
The best way to assess a client's gait is to observe them without them knowing, like on the way to the treatment room. Answer options A, B and D would likely to create a bit of nervousness and a forced or unnatural footing and/or balance. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Ethics, Boundaries, Laws & Regulations

37.	A client's demeanor reminds a massage therapist of her beloved uncle. This is an example of:
		a. Countertransference
		b. Transference
		c. Dual relationship
		d. Power differential
When a therapist projects feelings and/or memory from their past onto their client, this is a situation of countertransference. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	Therapists should maintain clear standards of practice for client draping to avoid crossing the:
		a. emotional boundary
		b. social boundary
		c. physical boundary
		d. professional boundary
Having clear and consistent draping policies for all bodywork sessions in accordance with the standards of practice is necessary to avoid crossing the physical (or sexual) boundaries of the client as well as maintaining privacy and maintaining the trust within the therapist/client relationship. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	If a massage therapist invokes a therapist's "right of refusal" to give massage in a case where massage is contraindicated, which specific principle of massage therapy is upheld?
		a. Beneficence
		b. Non-beneficence
		c. Maleficence
		d. Non-maleficence
The principles of beneficence and non-maleficence are obligations of the massage therapist to maximize the possible benefits of massage (beneficence) and to avoid or minimize possible harms to the client (non-maleficence). Both principles are based on what's in the client's best interest. Non-maleficence requires a massage therapist to refrain from something that goes against the client's interest. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	A massage therapist has a friend who is a client. The massage therapist feels bad charging the client. From what is this feeling arising from?
		a. Transference
		b. Countertransference
		c. Dual relationship
		d. Power differential
A dual relationship arises when a client is a friend, family member or business associate. These relationships make it difficult to keep social boundaries. A problem with such relationships is that the massage therapist and client can start having feelings about the situation which are beyond professional. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	A massage therapist is advising a client to take a certain medication. What boundary or rule is being broken?
		a. Physical Boundaries
		b. Dual Relationship
		c. Emotional Boundaries
		d. Scope of Practice
The massage therapist's scope of practice is being broken. Scope of Practice includes everything that the therapist is trained to do under the specific certificate/license with which they are currently working. Physical boundaries related to physical environment of the client, like draping or touching. A dual relationship describes a scenario where the massage therapist and client may also be family, friends or colleagues, which in turn may mar or confuse the professional boundaries. Emotional boundaries related to transference, countertransference and the power differential. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	To obtain informed consent all of the following are necessary, except:
		a. Disclosure
		b. Understanding
		c. Processing
		d. Consent
Processing is not a part of informed consent. Informed consent requires the disclosure or the presentation of all relevant information needed to make informed consent, an understanding in the client of the information and consent where the client (usually signs a waiver) agrees and/or gives permission to the treatment protocol. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Guidelines for Professional Practice

43.	The two main stances for massage therapists to use for technique delivery are:
		a. Straddle and archer
		b. Straddle and hunter
		c. Squat and lunge
		d. Wall sit and lunge
The two main stances to deliver a massage are the straddle and archer stances. The straddle stance is with feet hip width apart, knees slightly bent, toes straight ahead and weight evenly distributed on both feet. The archer stance is with toes pointing in same direction, one foot in front asymmetrically with the most weight on the back foot. These two stances allow the most versatility in providing even, full and smooth technique delivery with the least amount of stress to the therapist and the most efficient treatment for the client. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	A massage therapist should avoid wearing wrinkled clothing, too much makeup and sexy attire as a matter of:
		a. ethics
		b. scope of practice
		c. professionalism
		d. standard precautions
It is important to have a good first impression with clients to instill trust and to lay the ground work for a long-term relationship. Choosing a work uniform which is comfortable to work in, allows freedom of movement, and gives the impression that your office is professional and dedicated to the health and well-being of the client is most important. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	Which tax form would an independent contractor of a wellness center receive at the end of the calendar year?
		a. 1099
		b. W2
		c. W4
		d. 1040
As an independent contractor, the therapist would receive a 1099 statement from the wellness center. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	All of the following are necessary to the legal practice of massage therapy, except:
		a. Corporate formation
		b. A state license of massage therapy
		c. Insurance for practice
		d. Maintenance of client confidentiality
A massage therapist does not have to form a corporation or even start a business to practice as a massage therapist. A massage therapist can work as an employee for a massage therapy business. However, a massage therapist must follow HIPAA's confidentiality rules and regulations, have liability insurance for his or her practice and carry a state license for massage therapy and/or bodywork. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	A client may pay for massage therapy services with:
		a. Health insurance
		b. Auto insurance
		c. Workers compensation
		d. All of the above.
As long as the massage treatment qualifies for coverage, massage therapy can be paid for by a client's health insurance, auto insurance or with worker's comp coverage. The massage therapy may have to be for medically necessary treatment that is prescribed by a physician or primary healthcare provider. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	If a client has autonomy in a healthcare relationship, it means he or she has:
		a. The ability to pay for services.
		b. Self-determination
		c. A strong immunity system
		d. Good reflexes
A person acts with autonomy if one acts with intention and understanding, making one's own choices, free from any controlling interference from others that prevents meaningful choice. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Massage History & Culture

49.	Who standardized massage terminology and is given credit for bringing massage to the scientific community?
		a. Dr. Johann Mezger
		b. John Grosvenor
		c. Dr. George Taylor
		d. Elizabeth Dicke
Mezger was from Holland. After he presented massage to fellow physicians in Holland, the physicians and other followers began to use the French terms effleurage, petrissage and tapotement. It is not clear why French terms were adopted for the techniques. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which modality was created originally for pediatric clients as an option for acupuncture?
		a. Tuina
		b. Amma
		c. Shiatsu
		d. Reflexology
Tuina uses the theory of acupuncture where the practitioner uses finger pressure to stimulate the acupuncture points. Originally, it was used to treat pediatric medical conditions with poke-pinch and push-grasp techniques to stimulate a child's natural healing processes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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MBLEx is a trademark of the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards (FSMTB) that did not produce or endorse this material.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Charles Celeste, LMT

, is an instructor in massage therapy at Brightwood College in California. He has also taught at Baker College and was the program director at the American Career College. He earned his BA in exercise science from California State University and holds an MBA. He is MBLEx certified and has been praticing massage therapy for over ten years.

Michelle MacCubbin, LMT

, is an instructor in massage therapy at Miller-Motte Technical College in South Carolina. Prior to this position, she was an instructor and program director at the McCann School of Business and Technology in Pennsylvania. She is MBLEx certified with over ten years of experience in the field.

Sara Rennie, LMT

, is a massage instructor at the American Massage and Bodywork Institute in Virginia. She also tutors students to help them pass the MBLEx. She has worked in the massage industry for over ten years.

Andrew Dacres, LMT

, is an instructor in massage therapy at the Atlanta School of Massage in Georgia. He has also taught massage therapy at the Georgia Medical Institute and at Sanford-Brown College, where he introduced an MBLEx review class for graduating students. He is an MBLEx certified massage therapist with over ten years of experience in the field.

Chanel Andrade, LMT

, was the lead massage therapy instructor at Everest College for many eyars and, as part of her program, taught an MBLEx prep module. She has practiced massage therapy for over ten years in California.

Passing the MBLEx is one of the last steps to attain a license as a professional massage therapist in many states. The Actual MBLEx is 100 questions with a 1 hour and 50 minute (110 minutes) time limit. Additionally, 5 minutes is allotted for a security agreement and another 5 minutes for a brief survey for a total of 2 hours (120 minutes).

Actual MBLEx Content Outline (source: The FSMTB Handbook):

Anatomy & Physiology

11-13 Questions (12%)

Benefits & Physiological Effects of Techniques that Manipulate Soft Tissue

13-16 Questions (14%)

Client Assessment, Reassessment & Treatment Planning

16-18 Questions (17%)

Ethics, Boundaries, Regulations, Laws

14-17 Questions (15%)

Kinesiology

10-12 Questions (11%)

Massage Overview & Bodywork History / Culture / Modalities