2024 Edition

Medical Assistant Practice Test

Take this free practice test to see how prepared you are for a medical assistant certification exam.

The three most prevalent certifications for Medical Assistant are offered by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA), the American Medical Technologists (AMT) and the National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT). In most cases, certification by any of these organizations will be accepted nationally. Subject matter for these exams falls into the following three subject areas: General Knowledge, Administrative Knowledge and Clinical Knowledge.

To prepare for the actual exam, we provide a 750 question Medical Assistant Practice Exam written by Melanie Shearer, MS., MT (ASCP), CMA (AAMA), who is an Instructor of Medical Assisting; Dr. David Valte, Professor of Medical Assisting, Bramson ORT College; and Christina Cline, CMA (AAMA).

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Medical Terminology and Anatomy

1.	Of the following structures, which would be located in the mediastinum?
		a. Occipital lobe
		b. Aorta
		c. Left carotid artery
		d. Pancreas
The mediastinum is the central area of the thoracic cavity. It includes the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus and other parts of the central chest. The aorta is the main artery of the circulatory system and starts at the top left ventricle of the heart. The occipital lobe is in the brain, the left carotid artery is in the neck, and the pancreas is in the abdomen. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	The point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another is:
		a. Nerve center
		b. Synapse
		c. Dendrite
		d. Terminal plate
The synapse would be considered the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another. This is a small gap that exists between the neurons. The nerve center is where there is a group of nerves connected to each other. The neuron consists of projections referred to as axons and dendrites. The dendrite works by bringing information to the neuron. The axons take information away from the neuron. At the terminal plate is where an impulse travels from the neuron to the muscle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	Which of the following terms is spelled incorrectly?
		a. Bacterial
		b. Bacteriolagy
		c. Bacteriocidal
		d. Bacterium
Bacteriolagy is spelled incorrectly. It should be bacteriology instead. Bacterial, bacteriocidal, and bacterium are spelled correctly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	In a human, urine flows through the urinary system in which order?
		a. Bladder, urethra, kidney, urethral meatus, ureter
		b. Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra, urethral meatus
		c. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus
		d. Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney, urethral meatus
In a human, the urine flows through the kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra, and urethra meatus. Remember, the urine is formed in the kidneys, so the chain starts there. The urine then travels down the ureters to the bladder and then out of the bladder via the urethra and the urethra meatus. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	Which bone is found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?
		a. Calcaneus
		b. Femur
		c. Ulna
		d. Tibia
The femur is found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium. This is the upper leg long bone that extends inferior from the ischium and superior to the patella. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	Which abdominal region lies just distal to the sternum?
		a. Epigastric
		b. Umbilical
		c. Lumbar
		d. Hypogastric
The abdominal region that is distal to the sternum would be the epigastric region. There are nine abdominal regions: The upper three-right hypochondrium, epigastric, and left hypochondrium The middle three-right lumbar, umbilical, and left lumbar The lower three-right iliac, hypogastrium, and left iliac Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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7.	Blood flows from the heart's right ventricle into the:
		a. Left ventricle
		b. Right atrium
		c. Pulmonary artery
		d. Pulmonary vein
The blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart to the pulmonary artery. This is the only time in the body that an artery carries blood that has been used and is deoxygenate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
		a. Gastrointestinel
		b. Gastrointestinal
		c. Gastrointestinol
		d. Gastrointestinul
The gastrointestinal tract consists of the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and then the intestines. It consists of taking food in, digesting it, and expelling it. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in one-celled air sacs called:
		a. Alveoli
		b. Bronchi
		c. Capillaries
		d. Pleurae
The alveoli is a one-celled air sac in the lungs where the air exchange takes place. The bronchi are the two large air passages that lead from the lungs to the trachea. The capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body. These carry blood from the arterioles to the venules. The double-layer membrane which separates the lungs from the chest wall would be the pleura. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	If a patient has rhinorrhea as a symptom, this means which of the following?
		a. Mucus discharge from the nose
		b. Excessive tearing from the eyes
		c. Excessive drooling
		d. Excessive fluid in the ear
"Rhino" is a prefix used for anything to do with the nose and "rrhea" means flow or discharge. Rhinorrhea is when the mucous glands in the nose are producing more mucus than can be absorbed. Commonly known as a runny nose, it is quite a common symptom. Epiphora is excessive tearing in the eyes. Hypersalivation is excessive drooling. Otitis media causes excessive fluid in the middle ear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	What is adipose tissue in the body?
		a. The outer layer of the skin
		b. The whites of the eye
		c. The sac around the heart
		d. The fatty tissue in the body
The term adipose means where the fat cells are stored. The whites of the eye are called the sclera, the outer layer of skin is called the epidermis. and the sac around the heart is called the pericardium. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	Which of the following would be indicated if a patient came in with arthralgia?
		a. Trouble swallowing
		b. Joint pain
		c. Inflammation to a sweat gland
		d. A headache
"Artho" means to do with a joint or articulation and "algia" indicates pain. This is quite a broad term indicating pain in any joint in the body. Aphasia is the inability to speak, caused by a brain injury or stroke. Hidradenitis is an inflammation in a sweat gland. Cephalgia is a headache. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	Which of the following would be considered a part of the large intestine?
		a. Ileum
		b. Transverse colon
		c. Duodenum
		d. Jejunum
The transverse colon is part of the large intestines, along with the ascending colon and descending colon. The large intestine is considered to be the colon which also includes the sigmoid colon and the rectum. The small intestines consist of the ileum, duodenum, and the jejunum. The length of the small intestines can vary from 32 feet to 34 feet. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Adipose tissue is made of:
		a. Fat cells
		b. Lymph nodes
		c. Muscles
		d. Skin
A person's adipose tissue is made up of fat cells. These fat cells are referred to as adipocytes. They synthesize and contain large globules of fat. These are mainly found under the skin, but can also be between the muscles. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	The prefix brady (as in bradycardia) means:
		a. Fast
		b. Irregular
		c. Slow
		d. Without
The prefix “brady” means slow. It is used in terms such as bradycardia, meaning an abnormally slow heart rate. The prefix for fast would be “tachy.” Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Exam Room Techniques, Patient Preparation and Infection Control

16.	Of the following, which would a certified medical assistant typically be able to perform when assisting the physician in the exam room?
		a. Assist with minor procedures
		b. Start an IV for therapy
		c. Administer medications by the intravenous route
		d. All of the above.
When a certified medical assistant is assisting a physician in an exam room, they typically assist with minor procedures. Certified medical assistants need to be knowledgeable on the scope of their practice in the state they are practicing in. What a CMA can do varies from state to state. However, they are never allowed to start an IV or administer medications by the IV, these fall well outside there purview. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	When washing hands, the three most important factors include:
		a. Antibacterial soap, length of time spent and hot water
		b. Friction, soap and warm running water
		c. Position of the hands, friction and water temperature
		d. Length of time spent, type of soap, and running water
Washing hands in a healthcare facility is considered the most important step in the prevention of spreading infections. This should be done before touching a patient and when leaving the patient's room and anytime the hands are considered soiled. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	In a healthcare facility, which of the following agencies or organizations work to set the standards for the safety of the employees?
		a. OSHA
		b. NLN
		c. AMA
		d. JCOH
It is extremely important in the healthcare facility for standards to be set for the safety of the employees. The organization that sets these standards is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) which was created in 1970 to help better the working conditions of employees by providing outreach, education, training, and assistance. OSHA is part of the United States Department of Labor. NLN stands for the National League of Nurses. AMA stands for the American Medical Association. JCOH stands for The Joint Commission of Hospitals. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	When a clinic writes a statement which sets the level of care that is to be provided, it would be considered which of the following?
		a. Mission
		b. Standard
		c. Objective
		d. Requirement
When a clinic or other healthcare facility writes statements which states or sets the level of care that is to be provided, it would be considered standards or standards of care. The mission statement of the facility basically states who the organization is and sets forth the goals for the care to be given at the facility. The objectives are specific goals and typically addressed along with requirements, but are not considered the standards of care. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	In order for the healthcare facility to comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), each patient is to be given which of the following?
		a. A list of the employees and their credentials
		b. The staffs work schedule
		c. Office policies
		d. Patient rights and privacy practices
According to HIPAA, each patient is to be given a statement of the privacy practices of the facility/clinic. The facility needs to keep on file a form signed by the patient that they received this information. The healthcare facilities do not provide a copy of the staff names and credentials, office policies, or work schedule to the patients. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	Typically, in an out-patient situation, which of the following is the main reason for the visit shown in the admission record sheet?
		a. The first listed diagnosis
		b. The principal diagnosis
		c. The secondary diagnosis
		d. The primary symptom
Typically, in out-patient care, the reason for the visit is the diagnosis that is listed first in the admission record sheet. On an inpatient basis, the principal diagnosis is used. The secondary diagnosis is only used in an inpatient capacity if it is found to be the more primary diagnosis. The primary symptom is used to help determine a differential diagnosis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	Before making rounds, a medical assistant should be sure that they are carrying which of the following on their person?
		a. A pen
		b. A syringe
		c. A glucose meter
		d. A change of clothes
When making rounds, a medical assistant should always carry a pen with them. This is used to record any changes in the patients as well as blood pressures and blood sugars if taken. According to the facilty/clinic, these notations may be made on a computer. While health care providers may test blood sugar levels of certain patients, it does not require that a medical assistant carry a glucometer with them at all times. A medical assistant should never have a syringe because a medical assistant is not allowed to administer injectable medications, especially through an IV. A clean change of clothes while not a bad idea, is not the typical. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	When would Korotkoff sounds be evaluated?
		a. Determining blood pressure
		b. Counting respirations
		c. Evaluating pulse
		d. Performing ultrasonography
The Korotkoff sound is evaluated when determining the patient's blood pressure. This sound is heard by using a phygmomanometer and stethoscope when taking the patient's blood pressure. It is heard over an artery if the pressure is reduced below the systolic arterial pressure. It is not heard when counting respirations, taking a pulse, or when performing an ultrasonography. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	For a medical assistant, which aspect of an exam room practice precedes the other listed techniques?
		a. Treating
		b. Listening
		c. Problem-solving
		d. Procedure
One of the most important things that you can do in the exam room is listen. If you are not listening and documenting each complaint or symptom, then there could be a misdiagnosis. While all of the above answers are feasible, the other three would come as a result of listening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	Which of the following is important for the medical assistant to do before and after contact with the patient?
		a. Record their interaction
		b. Ask the patient questions
		c. Disinfect or wash your hands
		d. File a claim with the insurance company
You should always disinfect or wash your hands before contact and after contact with the patient. This will help to prevent the spread of disease or infections. While you should always ask the patient questions and record their responses, making sure that you and your hands are free of any contaminants is of utmost importance. While the medical assistant could be involved with the filing of the visit with their insurance company, this would not typically be done before contact with the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	If an infection is nosocomial, it means which of the following?
		a. Contracted within the hospital
		b. Originates outside of the body
		c. Contracted by touch
		d. That originates from within our own body
Nosocomial means that the infection was contracted while the patient was in the hospital. This type of infection is quite common and is why it is important to sanitize or wash your hands before and after seeing each patient. Exogenous refers to an infection contracted outside of the body. A nosocomial infection can be contracted by airborne means or by touch. An infection occurs when an organism enters the body and causes it to set up an infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	When pathogenic organisms are killed or destroyed, it is called which of the following terms?
		a. Asepsis
		b. Disinfection
		c. Antisepsis
		d. Cleaning
Disinfection kills all of the pathogenic organisms. This process is typically done using chemicals to get the result desired. Asepsis is the absence of microorganisms that cause disease. Antisepsis is when the growth of the pathogenic organisms is inhibited. While this is effective, it does not work against viruses or spores. Cleaning is considered the removal of debris which helps prevent the spread of dust-borne contaminants. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	If a patient is tested to determine the antibiotics that a pathogen is susceptible to, what type of test is being conducted?
		a. Sensitivity
		b. Biopsy
		c. Culture
		d. Cytology
If the aim of testing is to determine if a pathogen is susceptible to an antibiotic, it would be considered a sensitivity test. The test to determine the pathogen would be considered the culture itself. The physician's order is typically written for a culture and sensitivity testing. If the physician removes a piece of tissue from the patient to send to be tested, it would be considered a biopsy sample. When the cells are analyzed to determine abnormalities, it is considered cytology. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	A female patient comes into the clinic presenting with pain in the abdomen. The doctor notes that this could be dysmenorrhea. Which of the following best describes this diagnosis?
		a. Painful menstruation
		b. Fluid-filled sac on the ovary
		c. A tear or split in the abdominal wall
		d. Kidney stone
"Dys" means difficulty or pain, "meno" means menses or menstruation, and "rrhea" means discharge or flow. Symptoms of dysmenorrhea typically lasts about three days and will occur in the lower abdomen or pelvis area. A fluid-filled sac on the ovary is called an ovarian cyst. A tear or split in the abdominal wall is called a hernia. A kidney stone is called a nephrolithiasis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	A patient comes into your clinic and is having difficulty breathing unless they are in an upright position. Which of the following is the proper medical term for this condition?
		a. Menarche
		b. Lithiasis
		c. Orthopnea
		d. Gynecomastia
"Ortho" is a term that means straight or erect and "pnea" means respiration or breathing. Since the individual will have trouble breathing when lying down, he or she may typically sleep sitting in a chair. This condition is usually a manifestation of heart failure. Lithiasis is a condition where stones form abnormally in the kidneys or the gallbladder. Menarche is the beginning of menstruation. Gynecomastia is an overgrowth of breast tissue in a male. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	If a man comes into the clinic and the doctor observes that he has gynecomastia, it would point to which of the following?
		a. Swollen glands in the neck
		b. Overdevelopment of breast tissue
		c. A blood clot in the leg
		d. Kidney stones
"Gyne" is used to describe anything female and "mastia" refers to the breast. This condition is specific to men in that there is an overdevelopment of the breast tissue and the chest looks more feminine. There are many things that can cause this ranging from steroid use to a hormonal imbalance. Lymphadenopathy is swollen lymph nodes. Deep vein thrombosis is a blood clot in the leg. Nephrolithiasis is the term for kidney stones. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Which of the following should a medical assistant do while the patient is explaining their symptoms?
		a. Make eye contact and listen
		b. Avoid eye contact and listen
		c. Prepare for the next patient
		d. Multitask
The most important thing a medical assistant can do when a patient is explaining symptoms is to make eye contact and listen. Many medical assistants will do other things while the patients are talking. This is disrespectful and could lead to misunderstanding of what was said. Anything that a medical assistant does that draws their attention away from the patient while they are speaking would be considered incorrect. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medical Records and Office Supplies

33.	If a paper medical record needs to be corrected, which of the following would be an acceptable way to make the correction?
		a. Erase the portion of note that needs to be corrected.
		b. Draw one line through the portion of the note that needsto be corrected and initial it.
		c. Use white out on the incorrect entry.
		d. Shred that page of the chart.
If a correction is needed on a patient's paper chart, a single line needs to be made through the incorrect portion and then the person making the correction needs to date, time and initial it. The correction is typically made above the incorrect portion. Information on a patient's paper chart should never be erased and white-out is never used. The page would not be shredded. Patient charts should not be destroyed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Making a note in one file that a paper is in another file is called ________________.
		a. Cross-filing
		b. Indexing
		c. Conditioning
		d. Cross-reference
Making a not in one file that a paper is in another file is called cross-reference. This is actually a simple system, but is very helpful to clear-up where a specific document can be found. Cross-filing is a term that is used most often in politics, referring to the registering of a candidate in more than one political party. Indexing would be making a list of a certain group of things. Conditioning would be the completion of the records. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	Which of the following abbreviations refer to intracranial pressure that might be seen documented in a patient's chart?
		a. FACE
		b. FMLA
		c. CVP
		d. ICP
Intracranial pressure is listed as ICP in medical terms. If the patient has increased ICP, it can be a life-threatening condition and should be diagnosed and treated as soon as possible. FACE is a tool used to evaluate pain and was developed for children. FMLA is the Family and Medical Leave Act. CVP stands for central venous pressure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	Computer ___________ is considered the computer's physical equipment.
		a. hardware
		b. boot
		c. software
		d. application
Hardware is considered a computer's physical equipment. Boot is the term that is used for starting a computer. Software generally is the instructions or programming that runs a computer. An application is a group of coordinated functions for a particular benefit to the user. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	If a medical record is problem-oriented (POMR), this means that each medical condition is assigned which of the following?
		a. Letters
		b. Numbers
		c. Time
		d. Date
If a medical record is a problem-oriented medical record (POMR), each condition is assigned a number for tracking purposes. The POMR, as they are called, allows the doctor a better structure for recording their notes. The chronological medical record uses date and time. The alphabetical method is typically used more so on paper records which tends to take up a lot of shelf space or cabinets. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	Which of the following would describe a medical record that is categorized by date and time?
		a. Alphabetical
		b. Numerical
		c. Chronological
		d. Terminal digital
Chronological medical records are categorized by date and time. This is one of the more common types of filing so that all you have to do is look up a particular day to find the information that you were seeking. Terminal digital filing is the reverse of regular numeric and uses the last digit of the number to sort the file. Alphabetical and numerical systems are typically paper-based and take up more room. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	Which of the following would EMR refer to?
		a. Emergency magnetic resonance
		b. Emergency medical records
		c. European medical research
		d. Electronic medical records
EMR stands for electronic medical records. More and more facilities are moving to electronic records because of the accuracy and ease of access. While it could be said that emergency medical records are the records that the emergency room makes, the term is almost always used to refer to the electronic health records. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	Word processing software may be used by a medical assistant to create which of the following?
		a. Superbills
		b. Record of all patients and their addresses
		c. Inventory of office supplies
		d. Transcriptions
Word processing software can be used by a medical assistant to create transcriptions. Word processing software typically is used with text documents. This would include the creation of a document, editing of a document, and printing of a document. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	A cystoscope is most commonly used by a specialist in:
		a. Endocrinology
		b. Urology
		c. Gynecology
		d. Gastroenterology
A cystoscope is most commonly used by a specialist in the field of urology. This is a thin tube with a light on the end of it that the specialist uses to check the urethra and bladder of the patient. The endocrinologist uses an endoscope. The gynecologist typically uses a speculum. A gastroenterologist uses a colonoscope. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	Which of the following would be used to indicate someone has taken a file from the file cabinet?
		a. Patient chart
		b. Outguide
		c. Tickler file
		d. Summary form
The outguide is used to indicate when a person takes a file from the file cabinet. This is a filing system that some healthcare facilities use to help identify and control files/x-rays that have been removed. The removal could be documented in the patient chart or summary form, but this would not be a good system for the tracking of files. The ticker file is a system that helps remind the staff to do something at a future date. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Billing Coding and Insurance

43.	Before referring a patient to another facility, a medical assistant should be sure to verify the patient's:
		a. Address
		b. Income
		c. Insurance
		d. Transportation
A medical assistant would need to verify the patient's insurance before transferring the patient to another facility. It is not in the scope of pracitce of a medical assistant to verify the income of a patient. A home address check may be done, but this is typically done when the patient arrives at the medical facility. The medical assistant will more than likely check how the patient is going to get to the other facility, but the first thing to verify would be their insurance. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	A client would not be billed in which of the following situations?
		a. Where Workers Compensation covers the injury and care
		b. Where the patient has Blue Cross
		c. Where the patient has no insurance
		d. Where there's an indemnity insurance plan
If the client is being seen for a Workers Compensation injury, then the patient would not receive a bill. This bill should be sent to the Worker's Compensation department. If the patient has Blue Cross insurance, no insurance, or Indemnity insurance, they would receive a bill. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	A _______ must typically be paid by the patient at each visit when services are rendered at a doctor's office.
		a. Co-pay
		b. Premium
		c. Deductible
		d. Fee schedule
A co-pay is a fixed amount for health services set by an health insurance policy. It must typically be paid by the patient at each visit when services are rendered. Most insurance companies have a yearly deductible that must be met before services are paid for by an insurance policy. The deductible is tracked on a yearly basis, but a co-pay is paid at most visits. An example of when a co-pay may not be charged would be if perhaps the patient has had surgery and the post-op visit is billed with the surgery procedure. A premium is an amount the patient pays the insurance company each month to maintain their policy. A fee schedule is a list of amounts that will be paid by the insurance company for procedures. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	When billing for ambulatory care, it would indicate which of the following?
		a. Use of an ambulance emergency service
		b. Assignment of benefits
		c. Outpatient classification structure
		d. Outpatient services provided
If a facility is billing for ambulatory care, it is for outpatient services that were provided. This is anytime a patient will not be admitted to the hospital. The assignment of benefits gives the insurer permission to pay the provider directly. The ambulatory patient classifications have the structure for the outpatient classifications. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	If a patient has end-stage renal disease, which of the following acronyms would be used when coding?
		a. EnStReDi
		b. ESRD
		c. End Stage RD
		d. ES Renal Disease
End-stage renal disease would be listed as ESRD in medical coding. They may also call it chronic kidney disease stage 5 (CKD 5). None of the other abbreviations in the list are used in medical coding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	A pregnant patient's medical chart states EHR 150 BPM. What does this indicate?
		a. Electronic Health Record
		b. Embryonic Hereditary Range
		c. Embryonic heart rate
		d. Mother's heart rate
EHR is the Embryonic Heart Rate. This may also be known as the FHR or Fetal Heart Rate. The mother's heart rate will be listed as an HR. EHR is also used for Electronic Health Record, however, in this instance, it would refer to the embryos heart rate. There is no Embryonic Hereditary Range. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Psychology and Communication

49.	Of the following, which would not be considered to be a part of effective communication?
		a. Message
		b. Noise
		c. Sender
		d. Feedback
Noise is not considered a part of communication. The parts of communication would include: content, message, sender, how message was sent, receiver, and feedback. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which of the following is the center of the brain that controls fear, aggression and anxiety?
		a. Amygdala
		b. Cortex
		c. Thalamus
		d. Hippocampus
The amygdala is the center of the brain that controls reflexes and emotions such as anxiety, aggression, and fear. The thalamus controls pain perception and relays sensory information. The cortex plays a role in consciousness and the hippocampus deals with the autonomic nervous system, memory, and other emotions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

51.	Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes which of the following?
		a. Money
		b. Direction
		c. Self-loathing
		d. Self-esteem
Esteem is considered to be one of the five levels of Malsow's Hierachy of Needs. The other 4 would include self-actualization, self-esteem, safety, and food and sleep (physiological). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

52.	If a patient acts extremely rude to a medical assistant because their insurance does not cover their visit to the clinic, it would be considered which of the following?
		a. Displacement
		b. Denial
		c. Compensation
		d. Sublimation
Displacement is when a person transfers emotions about themselves or their situation onto an external substitute, like slamming a door when angry, or, in this case acting rude to a medical assistant. It is an unconscious defense mechanism. Denial would be considered when the patient does not believe reality, for example if they are told they have cancer but continue to believe something else is causing their symptoms. Compensation would be when a person overemphasizes a behavior such as providing their child with gifts because they have to work and cannot spend enough time with them. Sublimation is also a defense mechanism but it involves taking a negative emotions and turning them into positive action; for example, if a person is turned down from a job and is inspired to start their own business. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

53.	When a medical assistant is able to listen to a speaker's problem and understand the speaker's personal point of view, it is called:
		a. Nonverbal communication
		b. Critical listening
		c. Appreciative listening
		d. Empathetic listening
Empathetic listening is when one is able to listen to a person's problem/s and see from the speaker's point of view. This can be an important part of being a medical assistant. Appreciative listening is when listening for enjoyment or pleasure. Critical listening is when evaluating the message and nonverbal communication is when there is communication between two people, but no words are used. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

54.	When someone listens for particular things and blocks out what they do not want to hear:
		a. Full listening
		b. Selective listening
		c. False listening
		d. Listening barrier
Selective listening is when the listener blocks out the parts of the message that they do not want to hear. This is not a good listening style as one needs to listen and respond to the entire message when treating patients. Just because you're hearing something, it doesn't mean you're listening to it. Hearing is just the act of receiving the sound waves. Listening means that you are listening to the entire message and that you are sensing, evaluating, and responding to what is heard. This is called full listening. False listening is pretending to listen (like with a smile or a nod), but you are not hearing anything. A listening barrier is either a cultural, physical, or mental form of interference. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

55.	Which cranial nerve is related to the sense of smell?
		a. Hypoglossal
		b. Olfactory
		c. Trochlear
		d. Vagus
The cranial nerve that is related to the sense of smell would be the olfactory nerve which is cranial nerve 1 or CN1. The 12^th cranial nerve is the hypoglossal which controls the person's tongue movement. The 4^th cranial nerve is the trochlear which controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye. The 10^th cranial nerve is the vagus which interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the lungs, heart, and digestive tract. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Law, Ethics and Professionalism

56.	A medical procedure cannot be performed on a patient until the doctor obtains __________________.
		a. confidentiality
		b. informed consent
		c. insurance authorization
		d. vital statitics
An informed consent should be obtained prior to a medical procedure being performed by the physician. If this consent is not obtained, the procedure could legally be considered assault and battery. The physician is the person that is ultimatel responsible for obtaining the informed consent and should always follow the policies and procedures of the facility when obtaining this consent. Confidentiality should always be observed with any patient, but is not something that would need to be obtained prior to a medical procedure. According to the insurance company, prior authorization may be needed for the procedure, but would not stop the procedure from being done. Vital statistics are not always necessary prior to a procedure being performed. It would be according to which procedure is being performed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

57.	A medical assistant is at a bar with her close friend and they get to talking about work. The medical assistant infoms her friend that the friend's teacher was in the doctor's office getting checked out for kindey stones. This would be considered which of the following?
		a. Breach of confidentiality
		b. Assault and Battery
		c. Professional Malpractice
		d. Slander and defamation
According to the HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), which was put into law in 1996, the medical assistant is not allowed to discuss any patient with her friend, much less in a public setting where other people can also hear the conversation. This is a federal law which is taken very seriously with fines and even possible jail time can be imposed as a result. Assault and battery is when one person touches another with the intent of harm. Professional malpractice would be when there is a failure of the professional to exercise the ordinary professional skill expected which results in damage or injury to the patient. Slander and defamation would be when a person makes a false and damaging statement about another person. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

58.	Of the following, which would the HIPAA requirements apply to in a healthcare facility?
		a. Physicians
		b. Nurses
		c. Certified nurse aids
		d. All of the above.
HIPAA stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. This is a federal law that was put into effect in 1996. This law applies to physicians, nurses, and certified nurse aides, along with the other employees that work at the healthcare facility. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

59.	A 17 year old woman who is married arrives at the emergency department of a hospital with an injured arm. Who must consent to any treatment since this patient is a minor?
		a. Spouse and Minor
		b. Parent
		c. Patient
		d. The parent and the patient
If the 17 year old woman is married, she would be considered emancipated. In this case, the patient would be able to give consent herself. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

60.	If a medical assistant touches a patient with the intention of harming them, it would be considered which of the following?
		a. Malpractice
		b. Battery
		c. Harassment
		d. Assault
Battery occurs when a person touches another person with the intentions of causing them harm. The threat of harm is considered assault. Malpractice would be considered the failure of the professional to meet the standards of care or conduct that their profession recognizes. Harassment would be considered when a person subjects another to remarks, actions, or intimidation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

61.	If a clinic charges a patient's insurance for treatments that were not done, it would be considered which of the following?
		a. Malpractice
		b. Fraud
		c. Assault
		d. Embezzlement
Charging patients insurance companies for treatments and/or procedures that were never performed would be considered fraud. If Medicare or Medicaid is billed it would be considered Medicare fraud or Medicaid fraud. Malpractice is the failure of the professional to meet the standards of care or conduct that their profession recognizes. Assault would be considered when one person threatens to touch another person to cause them bodily harm. Embezzlement is when a person misappropriates the funds or belongings of their employer or in other words "theft." Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

62.	If a medical assistant is __________, it means that the medical assistant performs her duties in compliance with the standards of her job description.
		a. Dependable
		b. Negligent
		c. Competent
		d. Trustworthy
If a medical assistant is competent, he or she would has the ability, knowledge and skill to perform her duties successfully to the standards required. Dependability and trustworthiness are important qualities for a medical assistant, and are part of being competent, but are different from competence. Being dependable is being reliable. Being trustworthy is being reliable and honest. Negligence is when a medical assistant does not take proper care when performing their duties. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

63.	When hiring a new employee which of the following forms is needed when they are choosing tax exemptions?
		a. I-9
		b. 1099
		c. W4
		d. 1096
The W-4 form is used by the employer to make sure the right amount federal income tax is withheld. It is recommended by the IRS that a new W-4 form is submitted each year. The 1099 form is used to report other types of income if you had any during the year. The 1096 form is used to summarize the information you are sending to the IRS. The I-9 is used when someone is hired to verify their identity. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Bookkeeping and Collections

64.	If a patient's bill has been unpaid for more than 90 days, which of the following would call the patient?
		a. Attorney
		b. Medical Assistant
		c. Collection Agency
		d. Physician
Once the patient's bill reaches 90 days or more overdue, it should be turned over to a collection agency to contact the patient. The breakdown for the schedule to address unpaid bills would consist of: Bill patient - 30 days Call the patient about the bill - 45 days Send letter number one to the patient - 60 days Send letter number two to the patient and make a call to them - 75 days Send letter number three - 80 days Should turn the bill over to a collection agency- 90 days At 90 days, the collection agency should contact the person, not the lawyer, medical assistant, or physician. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

65.	If a medical assistant managing patient payments learns that a patient's check has been returned due to insufficient funds, what step should the medical assistant take first?
		a. Call the patient
		b. Call the police
		c. Notify the collection agency
		d.Call the patient's employer
If a clinic gets a check is returned for lack of funds, a medical assistant's first action should be to call the person that wrote the check. At some point if the check is not taken care of, the collections agency or police may need to be called, but it's not the first step. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

66.	What financial record in a clinic is typically the most active?
		a. Accounts payable
		b. Employee payroll
		c. Accounts receivable
		d. Malpractice liability
The accounts receivable records are typically the most active records in a clinic. This section covers what the patient owes and pays to the clinic. The accounts payable section would cover what the clinic owes and needs to pay out. When the cash is paid out, it is referred to as disbursements. The employee payroll section is often referred to as the payroll register. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Scheduling and Office Management

67.	Good team members ____________.
		a. focus on their tasks and not on some lofty goal.
		b. do not communicate with or interfere with others.
		c. do their job well without helping others with theirs.
		d. accept responsibility and accountability.
Good team members accept responsibility and accountability. They are clear about the goal(s) and they know that all goals are important. They focus on the goals. Good team members are always ready, willing and able to help other members of the team, within their scope of practice. They also communicate with other team members and they trust them. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

68.	Once an employee is hired, within how many days does the employer have by Federal law to have the I-9 form completed and verified?
		a. 30 business days
		b. 14 business days
		c. 3 business days
		d. Within the first year
When an employer hires an employee, they must get a I-9 form filled out. Once this is completed and verified with the proper identification, the employer must have them on file within three business days of hire. The employer must keep them for a designated length of time and have them available for government inspection if requested. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

69.	When checking the identity of a patient, most health care facilities require that the patient present __ forms of identification.
		a. 3
		b. 1
		c. 0
		d. 2
While it may be possible for someone to forge or fake one document, it is less likely that they be able to reproduce two. This is why most facilities require two forms of verification. Most people only have two forms of verification, so asking for any more than that would be redundant. You should never admit someone without checking their identity first. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

70.	If an individual is going to be using a computer for long periods of time, they should do which of the following?
		a. Adjust the chair height and monitor to a comfortable position
		b. Set as long as you can without moving so you do not break concentration
		c. About once an hour, stand and stretch
		d. Both a and c
You should always adjust the chair so that your feet are planted on the ground. Make sure that your display is adjusted to the point where your neck is in a neutral position. You should never sit for long periods of time while working on the computer. This puts your body in an uncomfortable state even with everything adjusted correctly. If it is not, it can do damage to your body over time. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

71.	A patient is always late for their scheduled appointments. The office manager spoke to the patient about the issue, but it has not changed the patient's behavior. Which of the following is an appropriate next step?
		a. Always schedule them at the end of the day
		b. Charge them a late fee
		c. Force them to find another doctor
		d. Have a heart-to-heart talk with them about the situation
If a patient is perpetually late for appointments, the best course of action is to schedule their appointments at the end of the day. This will give them more of a sense of urgency about getting there on time because if they get there late, the practice will be closed. The question implies that they have already tried speaking to the patient about showing up on time, so having a heart-to-heart does no good. As far as forcing them to find another doctor, there are many people that have severe illnesses and cannot be without a physician. Charging the patient a late fee for showing up late is not a reasonable action, as there was no work done at the time to charge for. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

72.	What type of booking or scheduling is used if a medical assistant brings multiple patients into the office at the top an hour to see their health care professional and they are seen on a first come, first served basis?
		a. Double booking
		b. Wave scheduling
		c. Standard procedure
		d. Time-specific scheduling
Wave scheduling is a method where multiple patients are scheduled to see the doctor at the beginning of the hour instead of every 15 to 20 minutes. Patients are then seen on a first-come, first served basis. This has become a norm at many doctor's offices. You could argue that live scheduling is the standard procedure, but this is not what the process is called. Double booking would not apply in this case because you are not booking two people at the same exact time. Time-specific scheduling would not fit in this case because that is where you have an exact time for every appointment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

73.	Call screening in a medical office is important because it allows a medical assistant to do which of the following?
		a. Avoid taking walk-ins
		b. Avoid patients that are not emergency
		c. Make sure the patient is properly triaged
		d. Avoid patients that have caused trouble
Call-screening in a clinic office is typically an answering machine which provides the caller with a recorded message with options on the phone. The caller is then able to leave a message which a medical assistant can later listen to. This is important because it allows the medical assistant to properly triage the patients by priority. The more serious cases would need to see the doctor sooner than the minor cases. A walk-in would not be calling to make an appointment. You should never avoid patients whether they have caused trouble or if they're not an emergency. You still need to speak with them to make sure that your immediate services are not needed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

74.	As a medical assistant, when a patient calls to cancel an appointment you should do which of the following?
		a. Have the doctor call them to reschedule the appointment.
		b. Inform them that their appointment cannot be rescheduled.
		c. Tell the patient the office is too busy to reschedule the appointment.
		d. Process the cancellation and talk to the patient about rescheduling.
As a medical assistant, you should process the cancellation and speak with the patient about rescheduling. Things happen that cannot be prevented and the patient may not be able to make the appointment. The doctor will never be involved in making appointments for patients. In some cases, the patient may decide to call on a later date and reschedule. You should never tell the patient the clinic is too busy to reschedule. It may take some time to get them in, but you will always find a spot. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

75.	Which of the following treats a patient that has diseases of the blood?
		a. Cariologist
		b. Pulmonologist
		c. Podiatrist
		d. Hematologist
A hematologist treats patients that have diseases of the blood such as hemophilia, leukemia, or sickle cell disease. A cardiologist treats diseases of the heart and vascular system. A pulmonologist treats diseases of the lungs, and a podiatrist treats the feet. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Office Laboratory Procedures

76.	Calcium, potassium, and sodium are all classified as:
		a. Androgens
		b. Electrolytes
		c. Estrogens
		d. Prostaglandins
Calcium, potassium, and sodium would be classified as electrolytes. There are several others which could include for example: glucose, ammonia, and magnesium chloride. Androgens would be considered steroid hormones that help with male secondary sex characters. Estrogens are a group of sex hormones that play a major role in the sexual/reproductive development especially with women. Prostaglandins are a natural chemical in the body that has hormone-like qualities. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

77.	Which is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?
		a. Anemia
		b. Leukemia
		c. Leukocytosis
		d. Leukopenia
The abnormal low-white blood cell count would be considered leukopenia. If a person has a normal white blood count, it would be between 3,500 and 11,000 per microliter. When this count drops to less than 3.500 per microliter, it can be considered leukopenia. If the red blood cells are low, it is considered anemia. Leukemia is mostly a childhood condition. But, it can also be in adults with more in men than women. It is also more prevalent in whites than African-Americans. Leukocytosis is when there is an abnormal high amount of white blood cells in the body. This condition is common with an infection or inflammatory process. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

78.	In the periodic table, K is the symbol for:
		a. Calcium
		b. Iodine
		c. Phosphorus
		d. Potassium
In the periodic table, K would be the symbol for potassium. The other answer options are as follows In the periodic table: Calcium - Ca. Iodine - I. Phosphorus - P Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

79.	Which blood type would be considered the "Universal Donor?"
		a. AB
		b. O+
		c. O-
		d. B-
The "Universal Donor" blood type would be O-. This blood type can be administered to patients with other blood types if there is an emergency and there is no time to type and cross-match the patient. The eight blood types consist of A+, A-, AB+, AB-, B+, B-, O+ and O-. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

80.	___________ is a protein in plasma which forms blood clots and stops excessive bleeding during tissue or vascular injury.
		a. Erythrocytes
		b. Leukocytes
		c. Reagent
		d. Fibrinogen
Fibrinogen is a protein in blood plasma which causes blood clotting after tissue or vascular injury leads to bleeding. The red blood cells would be the erythrocytes. The white blood cells would be considered the leukocytes. If a solution is added to another substance to help with a chemical reaction, it would be considered a reagent. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

81.	A condition of insufficient blood-clotting cells is referred to as:
		a. Thrombocytopenia
		b. Thrombophlebitis
		c. Erythrocytes
		d. Erythrocytosis
Thrombocytopenia would be considered a condition as to where there is insufficient blood-clotting of the cells. Thrombophlebitis would be considered an inflammation of a vein. Erythrocytes would be the red blood cells, and erythrocytosis would be an increase in the number of a person's red blood cells (polycythemia). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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Emergency Procedures and First Aid

82.	Of the following, which would be considerd the first step in treating a patient with a chemical burn of the skin?
		a. Wash with soap and water
		b. Apply an antiseptic ointment
		c. Apply ice
		d. Flush area with water
Flushing the area with cool water should be the first step in the treatment of a patient with a chemical burn. The area should be washed with large amounts of water for at least 20 minutes. There are certain chemical agents that are not to be irrigated with water immediately such as dry lime, phenols, and elemental metals such as magnesium or calcium oxide. The chemical burn area should not be coated with an antibiotic ointment, washed with soap and water or have ice applied. Applying ice can cause a frost-bite like affect and cause even further damage. A oil-free moisturizer can be applied for 3 days, but soap is not typically applied to these types of burns. The patient might be placed on antibiotics as part of their treatment if the burns are bad, but the antibiotic ointment is not typically used. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

83.	If a patient has severe burns over more than half of the body and the burning process has been stopped, which of the following should be the next step in their treatment?
		a. Starting IV antibiotics
		b. Applying antibacterial ointment
		c. Administering high-flow oxygen
		d. Wound debridement
With severe burns, it is important that you start the patient on high-flow oxygen and raise the head to an appropriate height to decrease edema in the airway. The other answers all occur in later stages of treatment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

84.	If a patient is admitted with a cut that is still bleeding, which of the following should be done first?
		a. Stitch wound
		b. Apply antibiotic ointment
		c. Get a tetanus shot
		d. Stop the bleeding
In this instance, the proper first step would be to stop the bleeding. Typically, this is done by applying pressure. If the bleed is arterial, then surgical repair would more than likely be needed. Once the bleeding has stopped, you can move on to evaluating the cut. The other answers, while all valid, come later in the process. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

85.	If an elderly patient suddenly has an onset of confusion, with no previous disorders or symptoms, what would be the most likely explanation?
		a. Urinary Tract Infection
		b. Dementia
		c. Hypoglycemia
		d.Alzheimer's
A urinary tract infection is considered to be the most common cause of confusion with elderly patients. This type of infection causes inflammation in the person's brain along with temperature changes. Both of these can lead to cognitive changes in the patient. While all these answers can cause confusion, hypoglycemia will typically be noted in the medical history. Dementia and Alzheimer's progress slower and should also be listed in the medical history if they are at an advanced stage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

86.	Which of the following symptoms would a patient exhibit that could be indicative of cerebral edema?
		a. Abdominal pain
		b. Itching
		c. Seizures and coma
		d. Normal vision
Cerebral edema can occur from several different types of injuries such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall. Some of the symptoms could include seizures and coma. In addition, the patient might experience nausea and vomiting, vision that is blurred, and problems breathing. Abdominal pain is not considered a symptom of cerebral edema, but of a number of other issues such as gastritis or bowel perforation could be present. Itching is typically a symptom of a reaction such as to a medication. Blurred vision, not normal vision, could be a symptom of cerebral edema. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

87.	A paramedic informs the medical assistant that a patient has had a cardiac arrest. What does this mean?
		a. Irregular heartbeat
		b. Blood flow interference to the heart
		c. Variation in the rhythm of the heartbeat
		d. Sudden stoppage of the heartbeat
Cardiac arrest is when there is a sudden stoppage of the patient's heart beat. This can be caused by a variety of causes such as a myocardial infarction or trauma. An irregular heart beat could be a sinus arrhythmia or atrial fibrillation among other causes. A blood flow interference to the heart could be caused by a blood clot or blockage in a coronary artery. Variations in the patient's rhythm of the heartbeat could be caused by several reasons. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Pharmacology

88.	The pharmaceutical abbreviation "qid" means ____________________.
		a. every hour
		b. every day
		c. four times a day
		d. every week
The pharmaceutical abbreviation “qid” means four times a day. Other abbreviations include: Twice a day- bid Three times a day- tid Hourly- q 1 hou Once a day - qd (this term is not used in most facilities anymore) Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

89.	If medication has been orderd by a physician to be taken "pc", it should be given:
		a. Before meals
		b. At hours sleep
		c. After meals
		d. Every four hours
After meals would be “pc.” Before meals would be “ac” At hours sleep would be “HS.” Every four hours would be “qid.” Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

90.	The pharmaceutical abbreviation "bid" means _____________________.
		a. once a day
		b. twice a day
		c. once a week
		d. twice a week
The pharmaceutical abbreviation “bid” means twice a day. Once a day is abbreviated to “qd” (This is not used in most facilities anymore because of the chance of misinterpretation). The term “daily” is what is typically used now. Once a week is usually “q weekly” and twice a week would be “twice weekly.” Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

91.	If medication of a patient or resident is indicated as PRN, it is given:
		a. Once a day
		b. When necessary
		c. By mouth only
		d. To discontinue use
PRN means "pro re nata" which is Latin for "when necessary". Medications that are given PRN are not on a particular routine schedule. P.O. is Latin for "per os" which means by mouth. Q.D. stands for "quague die" which means once a day. D/C is the abbreviation for discontinued when in reference to medication. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

92.	All of the following are narcotic or narcotic-like analgesics, except:
		a. Ibuprofen
		b. Hydrocodone/APAP
		c. Oxycodone/acetaminophen
		d. Tramadol
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory that helps decrease the hormones that can cause pain or inflammation in a person's body. It is widely used and is not a narcotic or narcotic-like analgesic. Hydrocodone/APAP, Oxycodone/acetaminophen, and Tramadol would be considered narcotic or narcotic like analgesics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

93.	Which of the following classifications of medications would be helpful in treating the patient that is complaining of heartburn?
		a. Beta blockers
		b. Antacids
		c. Analgesics
		d. Antibiotics
Antacids are used to help with the problem of heartburn. There are a variety of medications in this classification that are available over-the-counter and, at times, the physician will prescribe one that is not over-the-counter. Beta blockers are used to treat cardiac problems. Analgesics are used for the treatment of pain. Antibiotics are typically used to treat different forms of infections. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

94.	If a patient is prescribed a diabetic agent such as Metformin, which of the following reactions should the patient expect to experience?
		a. An increase in their blood glucose level
		b. A decrease in their blood pressure
		c. A decrease in their blood glucose level
		d. Vomiting
Diabetes can lead to a patient experiencing a high blood glucose level. If the patient is administered a diabetic agent, they should experience a decrease in their serum blood glucose level. These agents are typically administered either orally or by injections. In emergency situations, regular insulin can be administered intravenously to help bring the patient's blood glucose levels down more quickly. Diabetic agents should not increase the blood glucose levels. An antihypertensive medication decreases the blood pressure. An emetic stimulates the patient to vomit. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

95.	Of the following, which medication would typically be ordered to help a patient to get rid of excess fluid in their lungs?
		a. Furosemide
		b. Erythromycin
		c. Digoxin
		d. Carvedilol
Diuretics are sometimes referred to as water pills. There are times, especially if the patient's heart function is not working properly that the patient may need to be administered a diuretic. Examples of diuretics include furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide (Bumex), and acetazolamide (Diamox). Erythromycin is an antibiotic used for infections. Digoxin is often used to treat cardiac failure and irregular heart rhythms. Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta blocker used for the treatment of congestive heart failure and hypertension. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

96.	A patient is diagnosed with a blood clot in their left lower leg and is hospitalized. Which of the following would more than likely be prescribed for the patient per intravenous solution?
		a. Warfarin
		b. Heparin
		c. Enoxaparin
		d. Furosemide
With this patient, the first treatment of choice would more than likely include an intravenous heparin infusion. Heparin is considered to be an anticoagulant that helps the body prevent the formation of further blood clots. After a few days, the patient would likely be placed on Enoxaprin (Lovcnox) per subq injection, oral warfarin (coumadin), or another of type of oral agent. Warfarin is administered orally and Enoxaprin is administered by subq injection. Furosemide is a diuretic that is typically prescribed to get rid of excess fluid in the body. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

97.	Which of the following would be considered a muscle relaxant that might be ordered for a patient with back pain?
		a. Oxycodone/acetaminophen
		b. Hexachlorophene
		c. Bismuth subsalicylate
		d. Methocarbamol
When a person has a back injury, part of the treatment ordered might include a muscle relaxant. Some common types of these could include such medications as methocarbamol (Robaxin). The nature of the injury will help to determine the treatment, but muscle relaxants are often prescribed. Oxycodone/acetaminophen is sometimes ordered for short-term relief with back problems, but typically only if severe. The main treatment would be to determine the cause of the pain and treat that. Hexachlorophene is considered an antiseptic and bismuth subsalicylate is considered an antidiarrheal. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Pathophysiology and Nutrition

98.	If the physician prescribes a low-fat diet for a patient, which of the following should they be able to eat?
		a. Whole milk
		b. Chicken with skin attached
		c. Cake with icing
		d. Boneless, skinless chicken breast
A physician often orders a low-fat diet for patients that have cardiac issues. With this type of diet, the patient should not eat anything that is considered a saturated fat such as butter or bacon for example. They should also avoid whole milk, meats that are fatty, pastries, and cakes with icing. Whole milk has too high of a fat content. Milk should typically be skimmed or 1% according to the directions from the physician or dietitian. Chicken with skin attached should not be consumed on this diet. Chicken is okay as long as it is not fried and the skin should be removed. Cake with icing would not be good because of the fat content in the icing. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

99.	Of the following, which would be considered the correct percentage of nutrient intake by the Dietetic Association for a person's protein intake every 24 hours?
		a. 15%
		b. 65%
		c. 25%
		d. None of the above
The Dietetic Association says that the nutrient intake of protein should be approximately 15%. According to the Dietetic Association, a person's carbohydrate intake should be approximately 65% and their fat intake should be approximately 25%. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

100.	Of the following, which describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?
		a. Anabolism
		b. Catabolism
		c. Metabolism
		d. Homeostasis
The ability of the person's body to maintain its normal state would be considered homeostasis. An example of this would be the body's ability to maintain its temperature. The constructive process in which molecules are turned from simpler to more complex ones is considered anabolism. The destructive process in which molecules are turned from complex to simpler molecules would be considered catabolism. In a person's body, metabolism would be the sum of the chemical processes and the physical processes which includes anabolism and catabolism. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Melanie Shearer, MS, MT (ASCP), CMA (AAMA) is an Assistant Professor at Cuyahoga Community College, where she teaches medical assisting. Ms. Shearer volunteers her time to the Medical Assisting Education Review Board of the AAMA, serving as a member of the Leadership in Education and Practice Task Force and a program surveyor.

Dr. David Valte, MD, is a professor in medical assisting at Keiser University. He is also an adjunct instructor at the Arizona College of Nursing. Dr. Valte has taught medical assisting at numerous schools and has held department head and chairman positions in medical assisting education departments. He is a registered educator with the AAMA.

Christine Cline, CMA (AAMA) formerly instructed in medical assisting for five years as adjunct faculty at Everett Community College.

Our Practice Tests follow the actual CMA (AAMA) Certification Exam Outline:

General

Medical Terminology

Anatomy & Physiology

Psychology

Professionalism

Communication

Medicolegal Guidelines

Administrative

Data Entry

Equipment

Records Mgmt.

Processing Mail

Scheduling Appointments

Resource Info.

Maintaining Office

Office Policies, Procedures

Practice Finances

Clinical

Infection Control

Treatment Area

Patient Preparation...

Patient History, Interview

Specimen, Diagnostics...

Preparing, Admin. Medications...

Emergencies

First Aid

Nutrition

The three most popular medical assistant certifications are CMA by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA), RMA by the American Medical Technologists (AMT) and the NCMA by the National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT). In most cases, certification by any of these organizations will be accepted nationally.

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