2024 Edition

Respiratory Therapist Practice Exam

Take this free Respiratory Therapist practice exam to test your knowledge of respiratory therapy subjects.

The Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC) exam is a standardized certification exam administered by the National Board for Respiratory Care and used to certify respiratory therapists.

The TMC exam sections below are based on actual exam sections: Patient Data, Trouble Shooting, Quality Control of Devices, Infection Control and Initiation and Modification of Interventions.

To prepare for your test, use our 500 question Respiratory Therapist Practice Test that includes flash cards and an exam review.

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Patient Data

1.	You have a patient who has just been admitted for a bronchoscopy. What are two specific parts of the chart you need to review: 1. Patient Consent for Procedure 2. Patient demographics 3. DNR status/Advance Directives 4. Religious Affiliation
		a. 1, 2
		b. 2, 3
		c. 1, 4
		d. 1, 3
Upon admission for any procedure, it is important to ensure that an informed consent has been signed and the patient verifies they understand what is going to happen to them. DNR status/Advance Directives are also important to verify as they will determine what actions will be taken if something were to happen to the patient during the procedure. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	You have a stable patient who has been admitted for Pneumonia. What is the important data to review on arrival to the floor?
		a. Orders
		b. Lab work
		c. Chest X-Ray
		d. Pulse Oximetry
The orders should be the first thing checked to be sure the patient is receiving the appropriate levels of oxygen and any treatments that need to be given immediately. The key word is STABLE. If the patient were in difficulty, it would be more important to check the Oximetry first. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	You are performing a clinical assessment on a patient. You have placed your hands on each side of the patient's chest wall. You feel "bubbling" beneath your hands. What is this called?
		a. Tactile Fremitus
		b. Tactile Rhonchi
		c. Crepitus
		d. Normal
Tactile Rhonchi is felt through the skin as a "rumble" or "bubbling" feeling beneath the hands. Tactile Fremitus is a palpable increase in vocal vibrations transmitted through the chest wall. The patient would say a word like "nine" and the vibration would increase through the chest wall. Crepitus is a crackling feeling beneath the skin when your fingertips press on an area. A "normal" chest wall would have no feelings of bubbling, cracking or vibration with speech beneath your hands or fingers. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	A patient comes into the ER with shortness of breath. What initial tests would NOT benefit this patient most?
		a. Pulse Oximetry
		b. Cardiac Monitor
		c. CXR
		d. Breath Sounds
The CXR will give you important information and should be obtained. However, the CXR takes time to order and to get the results back. When you have a patient arrive in the ER you want to perform initial assessment procedures that take little time and give you valuable data almost immediately. Pulse Oximetry, Breath Sounds and the Cardiac Monitor can give you vital information that gives you a baseline assessment of oxygen status, heart rhythm and breath sounds quickly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	What size ETT tube is used in a 30-week neonate?
		a. 2.5
		b. 3.0
		c. 3.5
		d. 4.0
To determine the tube size, divide the gestational age by 10. This is the quick method to determine size. You can also select the uncuffed ET tube with an internal diameter of 2.5 mm tube for infants less than 1 kg weight, 3.5 mm for neonates up to 1 year of age. An internal diameter of 3.0 mm should be used for neonates over 3.5 kg and less than a year old. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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6.	A patient arrives in the emergency room with chest pain and shortness of breath. What questions are important to ask at this time?
		a. Past Medical History
		b. Current Medical History
		c. Smoking history
		d. All the above
All the above. You need to determine if the patient has or had a history of cardiac issues, heart attacks or some form of lung disorder. Smoking history will help to determine if they have a contributing factor to cardiac and lung disease. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	What parameters are included in weaning a patient from the ventilator?
		a. RR < 25 bpm, VT >25 mL/kg, VC >10 mL/k, Minute Ventilation 200.
		b. RR < 50 bpm, VT >30 mL/kg, VC >12 mL/kg, Minute Ventilation < 8 mL/k
		c. RR >20 bpm, VT >15 mL/kg, VC > 8 mL/kg, Minute Ventilation < 10 mL/k
		d. RR 20 mL/kg, VC > 10 mL/kg, Minute Ventilation < 12 mL/k
The criteria for RR, VT, VC, and Minute Ventilation have been determined through observation and study of the best techniques and parameters to obtain successful weaning. The Standard Weaning Criteria (SWC) uses the respiratory muscle strength and endurance by using the negative inspiratory force (NIF) and positive expiratory pressure (PEP) to determine how well a patient will do when weaned from the ventilator. The RSBI which is the Respiratory Shallow Breathing Index is used as well. As the patient tires the spontaneous breathing rate becomes rapid and shallow and it is necessary to evaluate muscle fatigue. RSBI =(f/VT) which helps to identify the breathing pattern associated with an unsuccessful weaning. The ratio of success is considered-- Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	A 2-year-old child is brought to an urgent care and diagnosed with Epiglottitis. What symptoms were presented to get this diagnosis?
		a. Upper airway stridor
		b. Fever
		c. Dyspnea
		d. All of the above
The symptoms in options a, b, and c are the most frequently seen in this scenario as well as drooling, sitting forward, sweating. A neck X-ray will show a column of air around the epiglottis and a "thumbs up sign." Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	What is the newborn's normal I:E ratio?
		a. 2:1 to 2:3
		b. 1:1 to 2
		c. 1:1.5 to 1:2
		d. 1:1 to 1:2
The normal I:E ratio for an infant with normal lung compliance and an infant with obstructive lung disease is the same: 1:1.5 to 1: 2. An I:E ratio of 1:1 I:E ratio is used in infants with impaired Dynamic Compliance to ensure maximum alveolar recruitment. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	You have a patient in Sinus Bradycardia. What are the two treatments you will choose for this patient initially?
		a. Lidocaine and Pacemaker
		b. Oxygen and Atropine
		c. Oxygen and Digoxin
		d. Pacemaker and Inderal
Oxygen and Atropine are the initial drugs of choice for the treatment of Sinus Bradycardia. If the Bradycardia persists or devolves to a heart block you may consider placing transthoracic pacing pads along with medication and oxygen. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	You have a patient with a pulmonary embolism. What diagnostic study is preferred?
		a. Spiral/Helical CT
		b. Angiogram
		c. V/Q scan
		d. CXR
A Spiral/Helical CT takes less than 30 minutes to complete. If you have an unstable patient, it is important to get the information you need quickly. The V/Q scan is considered the second-best option. The CT Angiogram is the last choice as it is expensive and takes longer to accomplish. The CXR will not be sensitive enough to give you the information you need. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	What values in pulmonary testing results will be higher than normal predicted values in Obstructive Lung Disease?
		a. VT, RV, ERV
		b. FRC, RV and TLC
		c. VC, RV, TLC
		d. FRC, TLV, RV
Obstructive Lung Disease will cause a higher than predicted increase in values of FRC, RV and TLC. Obstructive Lung Disease causes an increase in chest expansion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	What is the best method to confirm tube placement?
		a. Breath Sounds
		b. Capnography
		c. Bilateral Chest Expansion
		d. Oximetry
Capnography gives you the most immediate information. Breath sounds and Bilateral Chest Expansion can be considered subjective. Oximetry is also a device that gives you data, but it is on Oxygen, not End Tidal CO2. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Your patient has an ABG of PH: 7.21, PCO2: 56 mmHg, HCO3: 23 mEq/L, what does the ABG demonstrate?
		a. Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
		b. Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis
		c. Partially compensated Metabolic Acidosis
		d. Partially compensated Respiratory Acidosis
This is an example of an uncompensated respiratory acidosis. The PH is acidic-less than 7.35, PCO2 is high-greater than 45 mmHg demonstrated hypoventilation, and there is a normal HCO3. The kidneys have not started to adjust the Bicarb level by holding onto it. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	What is the normal Creatinine Level?
		a. 0.5 - 1.0 mg/dL
		b. 0.7 -1.3 mg/dL
		c. 0.1 - 2 mg/dL
		d. 0.7 - 2.0 mg/dL
0.7 - 1.3 mg/dL. Creatinine is a waste by-product of the metabolizing of creatine phosphate which is a result of the breakdown of skeletal muscle. There are four reasons why Creatinine is used to determine kidney function: the rate of production is fairly constant; it is eliminated only by the kidneys; it is not-protein bound so it is easily filtered by the kidneys and the rate of elimination is almost the same as the glomerular filtration rate. The importance of this is that creatinine is secreted and reabsorbed by the tubules in a limited amount. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Troubleshooting and Quality Control of Devices and Infection Control

16.	You are looking at the orders for a patient to receive 125 mg of Albuterol via HHN Q 4 hours. What is the FIRST thing you do?
		a. Call Provider and confirm the order.
		b. Give the medication as ordered.
		c. Give the correct dosage of medication and correct the order later.
		d. Skip the treatment.
Patient safety always comes first. If the dosage is incorrect, you must call the Provider and ask for clarification of the order. You do not give a medication order that is not correct. You do not give the "correct" dose and then confirm the order afterwards. All orders must be verified before administration. You do not just "skip" a treatment because the order is incorrect. Make sure the order error is corrected and the treatment given to the patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	What are the five parameters initially used to set up a ventilator?
		a. Tidal Volume: 6-8 mL/kg, RR: 10-12 bpm, PC ventilation:
		b. Tidal Volume: 5-10 mL/kg, RR: 20 bpm, AC/PC ventilation: >35 cmH2O, FiO2: 50-100%
		c. Tidal Volume: 6-8 mL/kg, RR: 15 bpm, SIMV/PS: 5, PEEP: 5, FiO2: 20-30%
		d. None of the above
Tidal Volume: 6-8 mL/kg (6-7 mL/kg is considered ideal), RR: 10-12 bpm, PC ventilation: <35 cmH2O, FiO2: 40-60% are considered the standard protocol. The exceptions are ARDS, ALI, Asthma where the ARDS Net protocol 4-6 mL/kg and 4 mL/kg for Asthmatics should be used. When calculating the VT, calculate a high and low VT for ARDS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	When weaning the patient from the ventilator, what parameters do you lower first?
		a. Peep and FiO2
		b. FiO2 and Pressure Support
		c. Peep and Vt
		d. FiO2 and Vt
If your FiO2 is over 60% and your PEEP is over 5, lower the PEEP first. The reasoning is that if your P/F ratio PaO2/FiO2 cannot be maintained as you lower the Peep as you may have an underlying problem with ARDS. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	How do you calculate Compliance?
		a. Compliance = Change in pressure/Change in flow
		b. Compliance = Change in volume/Change in flow
		c. Compliance = Change in Volume/Change in Pressure
		d. Compliance = Change in Pressure/Change in volume
Compliance = Change in Volume/Change in Pressure. Remember that the lungs are normally compliant. They adjust to changes in volume and pressure relatively easy. As the lungs become less compliant, less volume can be accommodated, thus increasing the pressure in the lungs as lung volumes are trying to be maintained. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	Which of the following is not used to describe Auto PEEP?
		a. Inadvertent PEEP
		b. Occult PEEP
		c. Breath Stacking
		d. Stiff lung
The only name that is not used to describe auto-PEEP is Stiff Lung. A non-compliant lung can contribute to Auto PEEP occurring. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	How do you fix auto-PEEP?
		a. Increase the I: Time, give bronchodilator.
		b. Suction Airway and increase flow rate to decrease I: Time.
		c. Decrease e-time and change to a square waveform.
		d. Decrease PEEP.
Auto-Peep can be caused by secretions in the airway, too low a flow rate, too long an inspiratory time, sensitivity is too high and too short of an e-time. By increasing the flow rate, you can decrease the I: Time. Bronchodilators and suctioning remove obstruction of the airway due to secretions or edema. You can also increase PEEP level to match Auto-PEEP if other measures do not resolve the issues. This will increase sensitivity decreasing the work of breathing. Changing the flow patter by changing the wave to a square pattern may decrease auto-peep versus a decelerating wave form which may not give sufficient exhalation time. Increasing the E: Time allows for a longer period of time for the patient to exhale air from the lungs. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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22.	How does PEEP adversely affect the body?
		a. Decrease of Cardiac Output and Urine Output
		b. Decrease of Lung Volumes
		c. Increase of Blood Pressure
		d. Increases FiO2
Too high a level of PEEP can cause a decrease in Cardiac Output by decreasing Venous return to the heart and decreases Urine Output due to the decrease in Cardiac Output. Too high a PEEP can decrease lung compliance as the lung cannot properly deflate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	If your patient is on a ventilator and the FiO2 is over 60%, but the patient remains hypoxic what can you do?
		a. Increase the PEEP gradually
		b. Increase the Tidal Volume
		c. Increase the FiO2
		d. Change the circuit
If the FiO2 is already 60% or over, then gradually increase the PEEP. If the FiO2 is not 60% or over then increase the FiO2 first until you reach 60%, then adjust your PEEP. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	As Dynamic Compliance can vary at any point, what are three main reasons that Dynamic Compliance may be continually affected?
		a. Hyperventilation, water in tube, too long a circuit
		b. Bronchoconstriction, Kinked ETT, Secretions
		c. Secretions, FiO2 too high, PEEP too low
		d. Atelectasis, coughing, sneezing
Bronchoconstriction, Kinked ETT and Secretions are three common, easy to fix issues that affect Dynamic Compliance. Cdyn= Vt/(PIP-PEEP). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	You have a patient who has a brain injury. It is important to keep the airway pressures low to avoid increased intracranial pressures. What is the best action to take?
		a. Keep RR high, PIP below 30 cmH20
		b. Keep FiO2
		c. Keep PIP over 40 cmH2O and PaO2 over 60%
		d. Keep RR low and PaCO2 levels under 20 mmHg and PIP over 30 cmH2O
Keep RR high to keep PaCO2 levels between 25 and 30 mmHg and PIP below 30 cmH2O to avoid suctioning and causing coughing which raises ICP. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	When giving Acetylcysteine Concentrations of 10-20% how do you administer it?
		a. With a high flow nebulizer
		b. With NS 0.9% and then administer a bronchodilator
		c. Administer a bronchodilator and then administer the Acetylcysteine
		d. With a filtered nebulizer
Administer Acetylcysteine Concentrations of 10-20% via a nebulizer after pre-treating the patient with a bronchodilator. In the clinical setting you often mix the bronchodilator and the Acetylcysteine together. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	You have a neonate who is ventilated. The physician wishes to increase the MAP. What two settings do you change?
		a. VT and Flow
		b. I-Time and VT
		c. Increase I-Time and Pressure Limit
		d. Pressure Limit and Flow
Increasing the I-Time increases the time the flow is entering the lungs which will increase the airway pressure. Increasing the Pressure Limit allows for the increase in MAP. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	A patient who is on nebulizers at home states that the nebulizer is no longer working. What can you do to help the patient?
		a. Change the patient's therapy to an MDI with a spacer.
		b. Tell the patient you will both need to talk with the case worker and get help with getting a new nebulizer.
		c. Tell the patient they will need a new nebulizer.
		d. Speak to the physician about changing the patient's therapy to an MDI with a spacer.
When a patient's equipment is broken it is important to have both of you speak to the patient's case manager to arrange procuring a new one for home use. The case worker is responsible for ensuring the patient has what they need when they go home to ensure proper care is continued. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	How does a patient disinfect home equipment?
		a. Water and Hydrogen Peroxide-cleanse with a brush
		b. Acetic Acid-soak for 20 minutes
		c. Steam or boil equipment
		d. Diluted bleach
Acetic Acid soak for 20 minutes. Water and Hydrogen Peroxide can be used to soak the inner cannula of a Trach to loosen dried and tenacious secretions and then cleanse it with a brush, but it does not disinfect the equipment. Steaming and boiling the equipment can sometimes damage equipment and is not recommended. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	The patient is receiving bronchial hygiene therapy. What are the symptoms that would cause you to discontinue therapy?
		a. Nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath
		b. Headache, tachypnea, fever
		c. Cyanosis, dizziness, increased work of breathing
		d. None of the above
If the patient experiences cyanosis, dizziness, increased work of breathing, it is important to discontinue bronchial hygiene therapy. Any of these symptoms can cause severe problems and potentially death. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Derrick Davis, RRT,

is Director of the Respiratory Therapy Program at the Pima Medical Institute in Colorado.

Taya Haas, CRT, RRT,

is adjunct faculty at Mid-State Technical College in Wisconsin where she instructs respiratory therapy students on standards set by the NBRC.

Chris Reid, CRT, RRT

is a Respiratory Therapy Instructor for the United States Air Force at Gulfport Memorial Hospital.

OUR PRACTICE EXAM COVERS THE ACTUAL NBRC DOMAINS:

The Respiratory Therapist Multiple Choice exam contains 160 multiple-choice questions. A test taker is give 3 hours to complete the exam and a score of 88 is needed to pass for CRT and 92 for the RRT.

Below are the three domains tested by the NBRC:

• Collecting Patient Data

• Devices and Quality Control

• Interventions

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