2024 Edition

Radiology Tech Practice Test

Try this free radiology tech practice test to see what's on a licensing or certification exam for x-ray techs.

Most states require that a radiographer be certified or licensed. The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) certifies and registers radiology technologists and administers the required exams. The exam to become certified as a radiologist tech has 230 multiple choice questions and you are given 3 hours and fifty minutes to complete the exam. The exam covers the following subjects: patient care; safety; image production and procedures.

To prepare for your test, use our 500 question Radiology Tech Practice Test that includes flash cards and an exam review.

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Patient Care in Radiology

1.	A patient comes in for a radiologic exam and requires an intravenous injection of contrast. What is the normal range for creatinine?
		a. 0-0.4 mg/100 ml
		b. 0.6-1.5 mg/100 ml
		c. 2.0-4.0 mg/100 ml
		d. 8-15 mg/100 ml
This is the normal range for creatinine. Increasing your physical activities will help your creatinine levels. Low creatinine is dangerous and harmful. Muscle and liver disease can lead to lower creatinine levels. Elevated levels can lead to more harmful effects. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and high blood pressure. Higher creatinine symptoms include kidney failure and dehydrations. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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2.	In which position should the patient be placed if they have a syncopal episode and low blood pressure?
		a. Right lateral recumbent
		b. Trendelenburg
		c. Semi-Fowler's
		d. Sims
The Sims position is also called the recovery position. The patient is placed recumbent on their left side. This reduces the likelihood of aspiration and helps maintain the patient's airway. The right main stem bronchus is longer and straighter than the left, so if the patient were to vomit during the episode, the right lateral recumbent position would actually increase the patient's likelihood of aspiration. Trendelenburg position is one wherein the head is lower than the feet, which is not appropriate for patient management during this scenario as it increases the likelihood of aspiration or airway obstruction. The semi-Fowler's position places the head higher than the feet, which makes it more difficult for blood flow to reach the brain in this scenario. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	Consider a patient with a long bone fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of manipulating the affected extremity for imaging purposes (for example, to place the image receptor under the affected extremity)?
		a. Manipulate the end distal to the fracture site.
		b. Manipulate both ends of the extremity simultaneously and in unison.
		c. Manipulate the end proximal to the fracture site.
		d. Manipulate the fracture site directly.
In this instance, the radiographer should manipulate both ends of the extremity simultaneously and in unison. This will reduce patient pain, and also ensure that the fracture fragments remain in proper anatomical alignment. Manipulating only one end of the extremity in this instance would increase patient pain and may lead to increased instability of the fracture. Manipulating only one end of the extremity in this instance would increase patient pain and may lead to increased instability of the fracture. Manipulating the fracture site would cause the patient great pain and compromise alignment of the fracture fragments. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	Which of the following is an essential lab value that must be verified prior to administering intravenous iodinated contrast media, as it provides information on a patient's kidney function?
		a. White blood cell count (WBC)
		b. Creatinine
		c. Hemoglobin
		d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AFT)
Creatinine is a breakdown product of muscle metabolism. It is an important factor in monitoring kidney function, and higher than normal creatinine levels could indicate reduced kidney function. A patient with high serum creatinine could experience renal failure as a result of administering iodinated contrast media. The WBC is a measure of the number of white blood cells in the patient's blood. While crucial in fighting infection, this value is not indicative of appropriate kidney function. Hemoglobin is a measure of the iron-containing protein in the blood that is responsible for oxygen transport. While crucial for proper physiologic function in the body, it is not related to kidney function and therefore is not a crucial value for IV contrast administration. AFT is one of many measures of liver function, not kidney function. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	Which of the following is a type of manual respirator?
		a. Ambu
		b. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
		c. Mechanical ventilator
		d. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
An Ambu bag is a manual respirator that is operated by squeezing a bag by hand every few seconds to help maintain airflow. They are usually used to maintain oxygenation prior to a patient being placed on a mechanical ventilator. ECMO devices utilize an artificial lung to provide adequate oxygenation to patients whose heart and lungs cannot adequately perform gas exchange. Mechanical ventilators assist patients with respiration post-intubation to allow the lungs to heal following an injury or severe illness. CPAP devices provide continuous airway pressure in patients with sleep apnea to help prevent airway collapse. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	RT Jones leaves a patient on the exam table unattended. This is most likely an example of:
		a. Beneficence
		b. Battery
		c. Libel
		d. Negligence
A person who is negligent does not behave in the manner that a reasonable person would in a similar situation. Leaving a patient unattended on the exam table is one possible example of behavior that could be described as negligent. Beneficence describes acting in a manner that will benefit others, and is something that all healthcare professionals should strive for. Battery describes the unlawful application of force. An example in radiology would be applying hard patient restraints for immobilization without consent or a physician order. Libel describes publishing written statements that can defame one's reputation. One example would be documenting defaming information in a patient's electronic medical record (EMR). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	A patient is having a CAT scan of the head. After injecting contrast, the patient complains of nausea and having problems breathing. What type of shock is the patient experiencing?
		a. Septic
		b. Anaphylactic
		c. Cardiogenic
		d. Neurogenic
Anaphylaxis shock is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. A patient can experience nausea, vomiting, low blood pressure, and trouble breathing. Anaphylaxis is treated with an injection of epinephrine. Septic shock is because of infections. Heart problems will lead to cardiogenic shock. Neurogenic shock is caused by damage to your nervous system. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	What is the function of the housing around an x-ray tube?
		a. Keeps heat inside the glass envelope
		b. Promotes electrical shock
		c. Minimizes radiation leakage
		d. Helps with image production
One of the primary functions of the housing is to minimize radiation leakage. The x-ray tube is lined with lead and helps minimize leakage. Glass tube envelopes are made of borosilicate glass. This helps with the heat inside the tube. The housing does not retain the heat from the glass tube. The housing around the x-ray tube is there for electrical shock protection. The housing around the x-ray tube has nothing to do with image production. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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9.	The reddening of irritated skin due to radiation is called what?
		a. Psoriasis
		b. Petechiae
		c. Erythema
		d. Eczema
Erythema is the redness of the skin caused by the congestion or increased blow flow of capillaries in the lower layers of skin. Erythema is a common side effect of radiotherapy treatment. Psoriasis starts underneath the skin. It is a chronic disease of the immune system. Petechiae are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin as a result of bleeding. Eczema is a common skin condition marked by itchy and inflamed patches of skin. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	What is the position when a patient lies flat on their back and the head is lower than the feet?
		a. Fowler's
		b. Trendelenburg
		c. Sim's
		d. Lateral Recumbent
Trendelenburg is when a patient lays in a supine position with the head lower than the feet. The degree of inclination is 15-30 degrees. Fowler's is when a patient is sitting up in the bed. When a patient lies on the side with the knee and thigh drawn upward toward the chest is the Sim's position. Lateral recumbent refers to a patient that is lying on their side. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	When a patient is having a barium enema, what are the instructions after the examination?
		a. Don't drink fluids for 6 hours.
		b. Withhold taking a laxative.
		c. Drink plenty of fluid.
		d. Don't monitor your bowel movements.
A barium enema is an x-ray exam of the large intestine to detect any changes or abnormalities. After the exam, it is recommended to drink fluids for the next 6 hours. This will help move the barium through the bowels. Patients should use laxatives to help relieve the pressure in the bowels. It is very important to monitor bowel movements. Bowel movements may be light in color for up to 72 hours after a procedure and should be checked for bleeding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	The best time to use the log rolling method to move a patient is when the patient may have:
		a. Ankle fracture
		b. Head trauma
		c. Wrist pain
		d. Spinal Injury
When moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury, it is recommended to use the log rolling technique. This will minimize any damage to the spine. A log roll is not necessary when patient has an ankle fracture. If the patient has head trauma then stabilizing the neck is a top priority before a log roll is used. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Radiation and Safety

13.	When parts of the body are being imaged, what restricts the useful x- ray beams from causing unnecessary exposure?
		a. Protective Barriers
		b. Collimation
		c. Filtration
		d. Cassette Size
Collimation restricts the useful x-ray beam to the part of the body being imaged and thereby spares adjacent tissue from unnecessary exposure. Protective barrier refers to lead shielding and glass barriers. These are not used when restricting the x-ray beam. Filtration is when metal filters are used to absorb low-energy x-rays emitted from the x-ray tube. It does not restrict the x-ray beam in any way. Cassette Size is determined by the anatomy being imaged. It cannot restrict the x-ray beam. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Which target interaction is caused by deceleration of a cathode electron?
		a. Characteristic
		b. Bremsstrahlung
		c. Compton
		d. Coherent
Bremsstrahlung radiation is also called "braking" radiation and results from an incident cathode electron decelerating and changing direction as it passes by the nucleus of a target atom. Characteristic radiation is a target interaction caused by the removal of an inner shell electron from the target. Compton scattering is an interaction with matter, not the target, and produces scattered radiation. Coherent scattering is an interaction with matter that does not cause ionization. It is a photon interaction with matter, not a target interaction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	Which biological effects of radiation are random in occurrence?
		a. Stochastic
		b. Teratogenesis
		c. Acute radiation syndrome
		d. Deterministic
Stochastic effects are randomly-occurring radiation effects with no threshold dose. Carcinogenesis and genetic effects are the primary stochastic biological effects of radiation. Teratogenesis describes birth mutations caused by direct irradiation of the fetus. Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) occurs after a large dose of radiation is received, below which the condition does not manifest. ARS can be subdivided into hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and central nervous system responses. They are not randomly-occurring responses to radiation. Deterministic effects of radiation exhibit a threshold dose; i.e., below a certain quantity of radiation, no effect will occur. They are not random in nature. Radiation-induced cataracts are one example of a deterministic effect of radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	Which of the following is the unit for radiation dose equivalent?
		a. Gray (Gy)
		b. Coulomb per kilogram (C/kg)
		c. Rad
		d. Sievert (Sv)
Sv is used to measure dose equivalent, which takes into account absorbed dose as well as the type of radiation that caused the exposure. Gy is used to measure absorbed dose in matter as well as air karma. C/kg is used to measure exposure, usually in the air. The rad is the traditional unit of absorbed dose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	Which of the following will help reduce radiation exposure to the patient?
		a. Decreasing kVp
		b. Utilizing AEC
		c. Increasing mAs
		d. Utilizing radiographic grids
Proper use of AEC will ensure that the appropriate mAs is being used for the body part, helping to control patient dose. Decreasing kVp will increase photoelectric absorption of radiation, which contributes to patient dose. Increasing mAs will produce more photons in the primary beam, which will exponentially increase patient dose. While beneficial for image quality, radiographic grids require the use of more mAs to compensate for the grid, thereby increasing patient dose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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18.	Leakage radiation may not exceed _______ at a distance of 1 meter from the X-ray source.
		a. 100 mR/hr
		b. 10 R/min
		c. 150 mR/min
		d. 200 mR/hr
Leakage radiation may not exceed 100 mR/hr at a distance of 1 meter from the X-ray source. Leakage radiation is radiation that exits the X-ray tube housing from any route other than the port/window. 10 R/min is above the upper limit of allowable leakage radiation. 150 mR/min is above the upper limit of allowable leakage radiation. 200 mR/hr is above the upper limit of allowable leakage radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	A unit of measuring radiation is REM. What does REM stand for?
		a. Radiation Equivalent Man
		b. Roentgen Early Man
		c. Radioactive Early Management
		d. Radiation Evolved Management
REM (Radiation Equivalent Man) is used to express the quantity of radiation received by humans. Roentgen is responsible to for discovering x-rays. He is not responsible for the unit of measurement. Radioactive early management is not a term used to measure a unit of radiation. There are no acronyms that stand for radiation evolved management. This does not measure radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	According to the NCRP (National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements), what is the minimum lead requirement for lead aprons?
		a. 0.50 mm Pb
		b. 0.25 mm Pb
		c. 0.35 mm Pb
		d. 0.75 mm Pb
The NCRP requires that lead aprons have a minimum of 0.50 mm Pb. Lead gloves have to be 0.25 mm Pb. The thyroid shield and bucky slot cover have the same requirements. A 0.35 requirement is for lead glasses. These tend to be used in long fluoroscopy cases. There is nothing that requires a minimum of 0.75 mm Pb. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	Of the total radiation exposure of the general public, what percentage comes from medical and dental radiation?
		a. 90%
		b. 2%
		c. 37%
		d. 5%
Medical and dental radiation make up 90% of the radiation given to the general public. Consumer products and industrial exposure, which includes the exposure from nuclear power plants makes up 2% of radiation. Radon is 37 % of rad levels depending on the uranium content of the soil. About 5% of the radiation is from outer space and is called cosmic radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	What is a principle of radioprotection stating that whenever ionizing radiation has to be applied to humans it should be as far below the dose limits as practical?
		a. C/kg
		b. DAP
		c. FID
		d. ALARA
ALARA stands for "As Low As Reasonably Achievable". This should be remembered whenever using ionizing radiation on humans. C/kg stands for coulomb per Kilogram. DAP stands for dose area product, a quantity used to assess a radiation risk from diagnostic x-rays. FID is short for focus to isocenter distance. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	What is one of the duties of a Radiation Safety Officer?
		a. Conduct a yearly review of records on radiation levels
		b. Conduct quarterly review of the radiation safety program
		c. Conduct annual briefings and educational sessions with employees
		d. All of the above.
A Radiation Safety Officer (RSO) will schedule briefings and educational sessions to inform workers of ALARA programs and this should be done annually. An RSO reviews radiation levels quarterly. A radiation safety program is reviewed annually. It is an RSO's responsibility to review radiation levels in unrestricted and restricted areas to determine that they were at ALARA levels. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	What is a chemical substance that kills pathogenic bacteria?
		a. Disinfectant
		b. Antiseptics
		c. Chloroform
		d. Wet wipes
Disinfectants are used to kill pathogenic bacteria. These can come in liquid sprays, wipes, and aerosol. When preventing or arresting the growth of microorganisms, it is best to use an antiseptic. Chloroform is not used to kill any kind of bacteria. It is a liquid used as a solvent and formerly as a general anesthetic. Wet wipes are used to remove dirt and other particles from the skin. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Image Production

25.	Which of the following is considered a geometric factor that causes unequal magnification of different portions of the same object?
		a. Quantum mottle
		b. Noise
		c. Focal Spot Blur
		d. Distortion
When a radiographic image has unequal magnification of different portions of the same object this is called distortion. This is also considered a geometric factor. Quantum Mottle does not change the size of the image. It refers to the random nature in which x-rays interact with the image receptors. Noise is considered a geometric factor and is the undesired fluctuation in the optical density. It does no effect the magnification. Even though focal spot blur is considered a geometric factor, it refers to a blurred region on a radiologic image. It does not affect the magnification. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	Which of the following changes are necessary when imaging a patient in a dry fiberglass cast?
		a. Increase kVp
		b. Increase mAs
		c. Increase grid ratio
		d. No change in technical factors are necessary
Dry fiberglass casts are radiolucent, meaning they do not absorb or attenuate the X-ray beam. Therefore, no change in technical factors are required in this scenario. kVp should be set in accordance with the body part being radiographed to provide the appropriate scale of contrast. The presence of a dry fiberglass cast should not impact the selection of appropriate kVp for the exam. Increasing mAs is not necessary for patients with a dry fiberglass cast. Since the fiberglass material does not attenuate/absorb photons, no increase in mAs is necessary. Radiographic grids improve contrast by removing scatter radiation before it interacts with the IR. Dry fiberglass casts do not produce scattered radiation, so the use of radiographic grids should be dictated by the size of the part being imaged, not the presence of a cast. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Which of the following would contribute to the appearance of quantum mottle (image noise) on a digital radiograph?
		a. Higher energy beam
		b. An mAs setting that is too low
		c. Using the small focal spot size
		d. Utilizing lower ratio grids
An mAs setting that is too low will result in the body part and IR not receiving the appropriate quantity of X-ray photons, resulting in the appearance of quantum mottle, or image noise. Image noise presents as a "grainy" appearance on the underexposed areas of the radiograph. Using a higher energy beam would increase X-ray transmission through the object. This would result in a higher image signal and less image noise (this is desirable). Focal spot size is an influencing factor of spatial resolution. It is not related to quantum mottle. Lower ratio grids allow more photon transmission to the IR, which reduces quantum mottle compared to using higher ratio grids. The appropriate grid ratio should be selected in accordance with the body part being radiographed, with mAs adjusted as appropriate to compensate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	Which post-processing technique sharpens the outlines of anatomical structures on the radiograph?
		a. Smoothing
		b. Edge enhancement
		c. Histogram manipulation
		d. Digital subtraction
Edge enhancement sharpens the outlines of structures on the radiograph. This can be useful to evaluate interstitial lung markings or fracture margins more clearly. However, the use of edge enhancement in post-process could increase image noise. Smoothing is performed in post-processing to reduce the appearance of image noise. An undesirable consequence of applying smoothing in post-process is a less defined, "softer" appearance to the image. The histogram can be adjusted to alter the brightness and contrast resolution of the image. It is not related to image sharpness. Commonly used in fluoroscopy and interventional procedures, digital subtraction can effectively mask high-attenuation structures such as bone so they do not superimpose anatomy, such as vascular structures. This technique is not related to image sharpness. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	Which mA range is used for fluoroscopic procedures?
		a. 0.5 - 5mA
		b. 5 - 10 mA
		c. 50 - 100 mA
		d. 100 - 150 mA
Very low mA values between 0.5 - 5 mA are used for fluoroscopy due to the greatly increased exposure time compared to conventional radiography. The use of low mA values helps reduce patient radiation exposure as much as possible, since the X-ray tube is continuously energized during fluoroscopy procedures. Options B, C, and D are too high for fluoroscopy. Combined with the increased exposure time caused by the X-ray tube being continuously energized, this mA value range would result in excessive patient dose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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30.	How frequently should computed radiography (CR) image receptors be erased?
		a. Daily
		b. Weekly
		c. Monthly
		d. Quarterly
CR image receptors are highly susceptible to background fog, which can affect image quality by creating excess exposure. Due to this, all CR image receptors in the department must be erased at least once per day. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	What is best way to only change the density on an x-ray image?
		a. Kvp
		b. Filtration
		c. SID (Source-Image Receptor Distance)
		d. mAs
When you change the mAs, this controls radiographic density. It does this by the quantity of x-rays produced. Kvp deals more with changing the contrast of an image. The amount of penetration does not change the density. Filtration does not change the density in any way. SID changes the intensity and the density of a radiographic image. Therefore, it cannot change the density only. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	In what year did Thomas Edison invent fluoroscopy?
		a. 1895
		b. 1896
		c. 1913
		d. 1920
In 1896, Thomas Edison invented fluoroscopy. His discovery of calcium tungstate screens were effective for turning x-rays to visible light. Wilhelm Rontgen produced the first x-ray on November 8, 1895. This later earned him a Nobel Prize in 1901. The x-ray went public in 1920. Law enforcement started using it to inspect packages and luggage. Coolidge tubes were invented in 1913. These tubes enabled continuous x-ray emissions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	What is the best way to alter the quality of an x-ray beam?
		a. Kvp
		b. mAs
		c. Gray
		d. REM
Kilovoltage peak also known as kvp is the peak voltage applied to x-ray. It alters the quality of the beam. Milliampere-seconds are also more commonly known as mAs. This is a measurement of radiation produced over a set amount of time. A unit of absorbed dose is known as a Gray unit. REM (Radiation Equivalent Man) is a unit of the radiation dose from an x-ray. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Which of the following is not part of a quality assurance program?
		a. Making sure the efficiency of equipment
		b. Making sure the patient is satisfied
		c. Consistent quality of the radiographic images
		d. Keeping a low patient dose
Making sure the patient is satisfied is very important, but it is not necessary for a quality assurance program. Efficiency of the equipment is a very important part of a quality assurance program. Having consistent quality in every radiographic image can be vital to a radiology department. Low patient dose is definitely needed in a good quality assurance program. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	What is the proper way to view a radiograph?
		a. View the radiograph as if the patient was facing away from you.
		b. Any view is fine as long as you can see the x-ray
		c. View the radiograph as if the patient was facing toward you.
		d. View the radiograph as if the patient was laying on their side.
The correct way to view a radiograph is for the patient to be facing you. Most radiographs will have a right or left marker. It is incorrect to view the x-ray with patient away from you. It is universally accepted that when viewing a radiograph, the patient is facing you. There are markers on a radiograph to help make sure you have it facing the correct way. It is incorrect to position the film as if the patient was on their side. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	A system used to view radiographs is called PACS. What does PACS stands for?
		a. Projection access communication systems
		b. Printer analog computer systems
		c. Picture active computer systems
		d. Picture archiving and communication systems
PACS stand for picture archiving and communication systems. This technology provides storage and convenient access to images from multiple modalities of radiology. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Procedures in Radiology

37.	A patient comes in complaining of abdominal pain and the doctor orders an x-ray of the abdomen. Afterwards, you compare it to the last image the patient had taken and you see this x-ray. What is the name of this x-ray position?
		a. KUB (Kidneys, ureter, and bladder)
		b. Lateral Decubitus
		c. Upright Abdominal x-ray
		d. IVP (Intra venous Pyelogram)
In a lateral decubitus, it is essential that the elevated lateral abdominal wall is included on the image to detect any free intraperitoneal gas. The patient will usually drink barium to help coat the intestinal wall. A KUB is a generic x-ray used to evaluate the abdomen with no obstructions. The barium that is visualized makes it hard to see all the anatomy of the abdomen. When trying to evaluate air underneath the diaphragm, an upright abdominal x-ray can be utilized. An IVP is used when evaluating the patient's urinary tract. The patient is injected with contrast and images are taken in 5 minutes intervals to show the flow of urine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	A female patient comes in with fertility problems. The doctor orders a hysterosalpingogram. When is the best time to perform this procedure?
		a. Right before her period
		b. Two days after her period has started
		c. Three days after her period has ended
		d. Anytime during a period
The fallopian tubes are most suitable for an examination three days after a period has ended. Right before is not a good time because the body is preparing for the menstrual cycle. The contrast used to evaluate the fallopian tubes will be filled with blood and will not give accurate results. During a period is not recommended because the blood is flowing out. It is hard to get helpful results if the fallopian tubes cannot be filled correctly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	On a poster-anterior chest radiograph, which of the following should be included on the x-ray?
		a. Maximum of 8 posterior ribs
		b. Exhaled lungs
		c. The trachea, including upper thoracic
		d. Top of iliac crest
On a correct chest x-ray, the trachea, lungs and upper thoracic should be visualized. If the patient is positioned correctly, more than 8 posterior ribs should be visualized. There should be 10 posterior ribs easy visualized. A chest x-ray should be taken on inspiration. The lungs are not properly displayed if they are not fully expanded. If the top of the iliac crest is seen then the film is positioned too low. If the crest is visualized then more likely the top of the lungs will be cut off. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	A patient comes into the ER and has a skull x-ray taken. Which bone is fractured in this skull x-ray?
		a. Styloid process
		b. Parietal bone
		c. Nasal bone
		d. Zygomatic bone
The zygomatic arch is fractured on the left side. The zygomatic bone is located below and lateral to the eye socket. The styloid process is unable to be visualized on this view. This bone is a slender pointed part of the temporal bone. The parietal bone is located on the sides and roof of the cranium. The arrow is pointing to a bone that is lateral of the nasal bone. The nasal bone is the central line in the middle of the skull. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	What is it when the stomach protrudes through cardiac orifice through tear of the diaphragm?
		a. Small bowel obstruction
		b. Hiatal hernia
		c. Pleural effusion
		d. Appendicitis
An abdominal hernia is an opening in the abdominal wall through which abdominal contents can protrude. A blockage keeping liquids or foods from passing through the small intestine is called a small bowel obstruction. Fluid on the lungs is clinically called pleural effusion and does not tear the diaphragm. Appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix, which is located at the junction of the small and large intestines, not near the diaphragm. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	How is this shoulder positioned?
		a. Lateral
		b. Internal rotated
		c. External rotated
		d. None of the above
This shoulder is rotated externally. The greater tuberosity is turned medially. The lateral view is the side the shoulder. This view is to help visualize the scapula. The greater tuberosity in lateral on the head of the humerus. This view is internally rotated. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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43.	A female patient comes in for an x-ray procedure with the Diagnoses of GERD. What does GERD stand for?
		a. Gallbladder Esophageal Reflux Dysfunction
		b. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease
		c. Gastroesophageal Reflex Disease
		d. Gastroesophageal Reflex Dysfunction
GERD is a condition in which the stomach contents pass back up into the esophagus. It stands for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Which bone is broken in this oblique of the hand?
		a. Carpal bone
		b. Middle Phalanx
		c. Metacarpal bone
		d. Proximal Phalanx
The fracture is the 5th Proximal Phalanx. The Proximal Phalanx connects the Metacarpal bone to the Middle Phalanx. The carpal bones make the wrist. There is a total of eight bones in the wrist. The middle phalanx connects to a proximal and distal phalanx. The metacarpal bones make up the palm of your hand. The fracture is outside the palm. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	What condition does this patient have?
		a. Broken rib
		b. Situs inversus
		c. Pleural effusion
		d. Dislocated shoulder
This patient is suffering from a condition known as Situs inversus. The major visceral organs are reversed or mirrored from their normal positions. The ribs are easily visualized and none of them are broken. Pleural effusion is fluid around the lungs. The corners for the lungs are typically rounded when fluid is present. This image does not show a dislocated shoulder. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	Which reference line is placed perpendicular to the image receptor for the PA axial projection of the skull (Caldwell method)?
		a. Interpupillary line (IPL)
		b. Glabellomeatal line (GML)
		c. Orbitomeatal line (OML)
		d. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
The OML runs between the middle of the orbit and the EAM. It is placed perpendicular to the IR for the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull. The IPL runs through both pupils, hence the name. It is placed perpendicular to the IR for the lateral projection of the skull. The GML runs between the glabella and external auditory meatus (EAM). It is a positioning reference for the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull. The IOML runs from the inferior margin of the orbit to the EAM. It is placed parallel to the IR for the submentovertical projection of the skull. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the esophagus during a barium swallow fluoroscopic exam?
		a. LAO
		b. RAO
		c. PA
		d. RPO
The RAO position demonstrates the esophagus free of superimposition of the thoracic spine and heart shadow. It provides the best visualization of the esophagus during fluoroscopy. The LAO position is not ideal for demonstrating the esophagus as it results in superimposition over the heart shadow. The PA projection is insufficient for demonstrating the esophagus as it is superimposed on the thoracic spine. The RPO position is equivalent to the LAO position and is not ideal for demonstrating the esophagus as it results in superimposition over the heart shadow. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	What is the most commonly-fractured carpal bone?
		a. Capitate
		b. Hamate
		c. Scaphoid
		d. Pisiform
The scaphoid is located in the proximal row of carpals adjacent to the radius, and is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Pain and tenderness in the "anatomical snuffbox" area of the wrist is a very common clinical sign of scaphoid fracture. The capitate is the largest carpal bone. Due to its location in the middle of the wrist, it is not the most commonly fractured carpal bone. The hamate has a prominent "hook" like projection on its anterior surface that can be involved with carpal tunnel disorders. It is not a commonly fractured bone. Due to its small size and location on the medial aspect of the wrist, the pisiform does not often fracture. It is, however, an important site for muscular attachment in the wrist. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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49.	How should the patient's lower extremity be positioned for the AP projection of the hip?
		a. Neutral position
		b. Externally rotated 5 - 10 degrees
		c. Flexed 20 - 25 degrees at the hip
		d. Internally rotated 15 - 20 degrees
Internal rotation of the lower extremity demonstrates the greater trochanter and femoral neck in profile. It is important to rotate the patient's entire lower extremity internally if possible, not just the foot and ankle, to ensure appropriate visualization of these structures. The neutral position will result in foreshortening of the femoral neck and superimposition of the greater trochanter on the femoral neck. The patient's lower extremity should only be left in the neutral position if internal rotation is painful or if the patient has a suspected fracture. External rotation will result in foreshortening of the femoral neck and superimposition of the greater trochanter on the femoral neck. It is important to demonstrate the femoral neck in profile on the AP projection of the hip. Hip flexion will result in foreshortening of the femoral neck and proximal femur. The hip is flexed as well as abducted for the Cleaves (frog leg) method, not the AP projection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Evaluate the left lateral chest radiograph below. Which of the following procedural errors is evident?
		a. The patient's right side is rotated.
		b. The patient's left side is rotated.
		c. The CR is not aligned properly to the anatomy.
		d. The patient did not take a deep enough inspiration.
The right lung appears magnified on the left lateral projection of the chest. The right lung appears posterior to the thoracic spine, indicating rotation of the right side in this example. The left lung and heart shadow appears without magnification on the left lateral projection of the chest because it is closest to the IR. The heart shadow and left lung appear normal on the image above. The right side is rotated. The CR in the image above is roughly directed to the middle of the lung fields at the level of T7. This is appropriate centering for the left lateral projection on the chest and is not an issue on the given image. The patient did take a sufficient inspiration on the image above. This is evidenced by the 10 pairs of ribs that can be counted within the lung fields. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Michael Pallanti, R.T.(R)(ARRT),

is a radiology manager with over fifteen years of experience in multiple roles in radiography, including advanced radiologic technologist education at Penn Medicine in Pennsylvania.

Jewell Evans, R.T.(R)(M)(ARRT),

is an adjunct instructor in radiology in the Radiology Technology department at Pasadena City College, and is a lead mammography technologist.

Angela Casillas, R.T.(R)(ARRT),

is a clincial instructor in Radiology Technology at Del Mar College in Texas and has been a practicing radiologic technologist for over ten years.

OUR PRACTICE EXAM COVERS THE ACTUAL ARRT DOMAINS:

The ARRT certification exam contains 220 multiple-choice questions. A test taker is give 3.5 hours to complete the exam and a score of 75 is needed to pass.

Below are the four domains tested by the ARRT:

• Patient Care

• Safety

• Image Production

• Procedures

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