2024 Edition

General Contractor Practice Test

Try this free general contractor practice exam to get an idea of what type of questions are on an actual contractor's licensing exam.

Many states require building contractors to be licensed. To get licensed, you may need to take a business and law exam, as well as a trade exam. The business and law portion will cover such subjects as contracts, estimates, bidding, bonding, accounting, business forms, environmental regulations, safey and quality control. The trade portion of the exam will cover subjects such as plan reading and estimating, site engineering, sitework and excavation, footings and foundations, concrete, masonry, carpentry, metals and safety.

For specific practice of the contractor business and law exam or other trades, try the following:

General Contractor Business and Law Practice Exam
HVAC Practice Exam
Journeyman Electrician Practice Exam
Master Electrician Practice Exam
Journeyman Plumber Practice Exam
Master Plumber Practice Exam
Welding Practice Exam

Or, for complete practice, our Contractor License Exam Practice has 5,000 trade questions from 15 exams in the areas of electrical, plumbing, HVACR, welding and carpentry. Answers are fully explained and scoring is instant. All exams are written by leaders in their respective fields.

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General Contractor Business and Law

1.	Which of the following should be on a written quote sheet?
		a. Warranty information
		b. Schedule of the work
		c. Subcontractor identifications
		d. Contractor license number
It is not only a good business practice to put your license number on all quotes and contracts, but many states require it. Many states require the contract license number to be stated in all advertisements, offers of services and proposals. Providing your license number on all such communications will give your prospective clients confidence and security in your business. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	Contract types strongly impact how estimates are prepared. What type of contract typically has a well-defined scope of work and set of plans?
		a. Unit Price
		b. Lump Sum
		c. Cost Plus
		d. Time & Materials
Lump Sum contracts have a fully developed scope of work and set of plans with detailed quantities. Unit Price contracts are used frequently in civil construction where the scope is known, but the exact quantities are unknown. Cost Plus contracts do not have a defined scope of work. Time and Materials contracts are used when the scope of work is unknown but the materials costs are known. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	How many parties typically are there in a bid bond?
		a. 1, the contractor
		b. 2, the contractor and owner
		c. 3, the contractor, owner and surety
		d. 4, the architect, contractor, owner and surety
The typical bid bond has three parties, the contractor (principal), the owner (obligee) and the surety (obligor), which is an insurance company or bank. A bid bond functions as a guarantee that the contractor who wins the bid will perform the contract terms as agreed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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4.	If a subcontractor on a construction project is not paid, what type of lien can be used to enforce payment?
		a. UCC lien
		b. Mechanic's lien
		c. Mortgage lien
		d. Tax lien
The word "lien", pronounced "lean", is a Latin derivative meaning "to bind". The purpose of a lien is to bind or encumber the title to property for money owed to a claimant. Having a lien on the property essentially "clouds the title", making subsequent sale or refinance of the property difficult without first satisfying the debt associated with the lien. There are various types of liens. Mechanic's liens are used in situations where a contractor or supplier to an improvement to property go unpaid for their services or materials. UCC liens arise out commercial transactions under the Uniform Commercial Code. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	How is retainage used in construction billings and payments?
		a. Retainage is an upfront payment to ensure owner compliance with the contract.
		b. Retainage is a pre-paid retainer for architects during the design phase.
		c. Retainage is part of the contract price held back until the work is substantially complete.
		d. Retainage is a pre-payment by the owner for materials.
Retainage is a portion of the total contract price withheld by the owner until the work is complete to assure that the contractors will meet all of their obligations. The retainage is used as collateral to ensure the contractor, vendor or subcontractor will perform until the completion. When progress payments are used, retainage is measured by a percentage of each payment billed, typically 5 - 10%. At the end of the project, normally the last bill will be sent to request final payment plus retainage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	If a construction contract provides for the building of a $4,000,000 facility, what will be the penal sum under a performance bond?
		a. 5%-10% of the contract price
		b. 20% of the contract price
		c. $4,000,000
		d. Whatever is owed to subs and suppliers at the end of the contract.
The penal sum of a performance bond is typically the amount of the prime contract, in this case $4,000,000. It provides a limit of liability for the surety company. In a bid bond, the penal sum is typically 5%-10% of the contract price for non-federal projects and 20% for federal projects. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	How long must an employer keep pay records that are used to compute an employee's pay, like time cards and work and time schedules under the FLSA?
		a. 1 year
		b. 2 years
		c. 4 years
		d. 6 years
Generally, under the FLSA, an employer must keep payroll records for three years but records used to compute pay, like time cards, work and time schedules and records showing additions to and reductions in wages, only need to be kept for two years. This information must be maintained and readily accessible for inspection by the DOL. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	The critical path method calculates the _________ amount time that all planned activities will take over the course of a project to be completed.
		a. longest
		b. shortest
		c. earliest
		d. least
The critical path method is a technique to schedule a set of activities that are dependent on one another to measure the longest amount of time that is required to complete a project from start to finish. It looks at each activity individually to understand the earliest and latest time period in which the activity can be completed and how it will affect the other activities and the project as a whole. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	To form a contract, there must be an offer, an acceptance and an intention to be legally bound between the parties. What else is required to form a contract?
		a. Consideration
		b. Indemnification
		c. Credit
		d. Damages
Consideration is an essential element in the formation of a contract. It is the benefit each party gets or expects to get in a bargained for exchange. Common forms of consideration are money, real estate and personal property. Promises to do or refrain from doing something of value can be exchanged and form the basis of a contract. A valid contract will only be found where there is consideration for both parties. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	What is the main disadvantage of running a business as a sole proprietorship?
		a. Pass-through taxation
		b. Government regulation
		c. Personal liability
		d. Self-management
A sole proprietorship is an unincorporated business that just has one owner. The advantages of such a form of ownership is pass-through taxation and less government regulation, since the business is unincorporated. Pass-through taxation means that there is no business entity itself which pays taxes on the revenues of the business, but profits are passed through to the owner who pays personal income tax, so the revenue is only taxed once. While a sole proprietorship has some attractive features for construction contractors who work alone, it has one serious disadvantage - unlimited personal liability for the debts and liabilities of the business. Unlimited liability means full legal responsibility for all business debts and liabilities and the liability is not capped. The owner's personal assets, like house and car, can be seized and sold by creditors to satisfy the financial obligations of the business that go unpaid. For this reason, most companies opt to incorporate with a form of ownership that gives protection from unlimited liability. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	Having your employees use the necessary safety equipment is part of a:
		a. Risk Reduction strategy
		b. Risk Transfer strategy
		c. Risk Avoidance strategy
		d. Risk Acceptance strategy
Risk reduction is a strategy employed when a company takes some type of action to limit its exposure to risk while conducting business or after the risk manifests, by taking steps to limit its impact. An example would be to have workers on a construction site use all necessary safety equipment to limit the exposure to accidents. Another example is having your crew trained in first aid in the event it is needed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	Unused latex paint in solidified form is __________ .
		a. a hazardous waste
		b. a non-hazardous waste
		c. flammable
		d. corrosive
Unused latex paint in not considered a hazardous waste if it is in solidified form. It is water-based and does not create vapor that can combust. Once solidified, it can be disposed of as regular trash. In liquid form, latex paint can be considered a threat to the environment and should not be disposed of in drains or to the ground. Proper disposal methods include exposing the unused paint to the air, mixing the paint with paper shreds or using waste paint hardeners to solidify it. If a contractor has large quantities of unused latex paint, local ordinances may require the paint to be delivered to a chemical collection center. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	What OSHA standard requires employers to make information available to workers about toxic substances and chemicals in the work place?
		a. Hazard Communication Standard
		b. Control of Hazardous Energy Standard
		c. Affirmative Action Standard
		d. General Safety and Health Provisions
OSHA created the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) (CFR 1926.59) to ensure chemical safety in the workplace. The HCS requires employers to make information available and understandable to workers of the identities and chemicals used in a workplace. All employers with hazardous chemicals in their workplaces must have labels and safety data sheets for their exposed workers, and train them to handle the chemicals appropriately. The training for employees must also include information on the hazards of the chemicals in their work area and the measures to be used to protect themselves. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Would the International Building Code (IBC) or the International Residential Code (IRC) apply to a detached residential 3-family dwelling construction project?
		a. IBC
		b. IRC
		c. The contractor can choose since they are the same.
		d. Neither would apply.
The IBC covers every building or structure unless it is covered by the IRC. The IRC covers detached one and two family dwellings and townhouses. Therefore, since the IRC will not apply to detached residential construction with 3-family dwellings, the IBC would apply. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	You are bidding a job that requires a 6% insurance bond based on the total cost of the project. You have calculated the cost of the job in materials and labor to be $93,500.00. How much will your bid be increased due to the bond?
		a. $561.00
		b. $5,600.00
		c. $5,610.00
		d. $56,100.00
$93,500.00 x .06 = $5,610.00 Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	What is the purpose of a prevailing wage law on public contracts?
		a. To level the playing field between local and non-local workers
		b. To ensure that the government pays the lowest possible price on contracts.
		c. To help workers earn higher wages
		d. To allow companies to save money
The prevailing wage laws are like minimum wage laws within a certain geographical area for construction workers on public contracts. They set the minimum cost of labor that's applied to all workers, regardless of where they come from. Prevailing wage laws helps prevent the use of less expensive, non-local workers to undercut local workers. In this way, a level playing field is created for local workers. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	What type of plan does a general contractor typically implement to ensure that the craftsmanship of construction meets standards established in the contract?
		a. Quality Control Plan
		b. Schedule of Values
		c. Critical Path
		d. Site Plan
It is a typical requirement of a commercial construction project for the GC to provide a Quality Control Plan to detail their intended efforts throughout the project to maintain the quality intended by the designers. This plan of action is developed, in part, to maintain the specified products that are to be purchased and installed by the tradesmen on site. Testing requirements should also be listed in this plan and, if third-party testing is needed, it should be set up in advance. Typically, a project with a QC plan will have a designated quality control manager who is independent of the project superintendent, who runs the day-to-day field operations. A QC plan will utilize a system of surveillance to monitor overall quality control. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Carpentry

18.	What is a conceptual estimate?
		a. A preliminary estimate based on the owner's ideas of design.
		b. It is the actual budget for the project developed by an architectural/engineering firm.
		c. An owner's initial estimate of cost.
		d. An estimate based on blue-prints.
Conceptual estimates are produced from merely the notion the owner has pictured to be constructed. They help the owner determine early on whether a project is financially feasible. More detailed estimates come after the conceptual estimate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	In a set of blueprints, where would you find the required window sizes?
		a. Elevation plan
		b. Window plan
		c. Window schedule
		d. Architectural plan
The window schedule would be found on a drawing in a box format of detail. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	How is the 3-4-5 method applied in layout situations?
		a. To find perpendicular lines
		b. To square two lines at 90°
		c. To find parallel lines
		d. To get vertical measurements
The 3-4-5 method is the most accurate method to find a 90° angle. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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21.	What types of trees does hardwood lumber come from?
		a. Deciduous (leaf-barring)
		b. Trees grown in the north
		c. Coniferous (cone barring)
		d. Evergreens
Hardwood trees only grow leaves so it makes this easy to determine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	What is the margin of safety when operating a table saw?
		a. 1'
		b. 2"
		c. 4"
		d. 6"
You should never rip or cut a piece of lumber on a table saw with the fence closer than 4" to the blade. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	Which of the following practices is important to prevent injury while using a chisel?
		a. Always chisel in a direction away from you.
		b. Always use a sharp chisel
		c. Clamp or vice wood stock down.
		d. All the above
You should always take proper precautions when using any sharp tool. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	What is the type of square used for layout of rafters using the step method?
		a. Speed square
		b. Try square
		c. Combination square
		d. Framing square
The framing square has a ruler on both sides. The 16" and 24" surfaces using both sides can determine what the pitch is for the rafter. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	What is the actual size of a piece of 1" x 8" #2 pine?
		a. 1" x 7 ½"
		b. 34" x 7 ½"
		c. ¾" x 7 ¼"
		d. 1" x 7 3/8"
The nominal size is 1" x 8" but the dimensional or actual size is ¾" x 7 ¼" when dressed to size. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	What is another name for saber saw?
		a. Portable electric jig saw
		b. Builders saw
		c. Drywall cutter
		d. Reciprocating saw
This saw is commonly referred to as a jig saw. Its purpose is to cut odd shapes in material. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	The air pressure for an air powered nail gun should not exceed what PSI?
		a. 40 psi
		b. 120-150 psi
		c. 160 psi
		d. Manufactures set the maximum psi.
If you exceed the manufactures maximum psi you void the warranty and put safety in question. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Plumbing

28.	For the issuance of a plumbing permit, which of the following is normally required?
		a. Design plans
		b. Complete specifications
		c. A description of the use of the building
		d. All of the above
When you apply for a plumbing permit you must provide a full description of the work to be done. Plumbing plans are often required for larger jobs. Specifications of all materials to be installed are a common requirement for a plumbing permit. Permit applications require the physical address of the property to receive plumbing services. The use of the property is often required. It makes a difference if a structure is a home or a daycare. The owner's name of the proper is generally required. You are also required to detail the number and type of plumbing fixtures to be installed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	What is the maximum distance allowed between pipe supports for plastic DWV piping that is installed horizontally?
		a. 12 inches
		b. 24 inches
		c. 30 inches
		d. 48 inches
Four feet is the maximum distance allowed between pipe supports for plastic DWV piping that is installed in a horizontal position. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	Which of the following types of faucet handles are not allowed for use with faucets that will be installed on accessible fixtures?
		a. Blade handles
		b. Crossbar handles
		c. Single handles
		d. Wing handles
Crossbar handles are not allowed for use in conjunction with accessible faucets. The types of handles that are allowed include: push-button handles, sensor-units, blade handles, wing handles and single handles. The reason for this is that finger dexterity is not a requirement for operating the handles. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	What is the rodding clearance for a 3" drain?
		a. 12"
		b. 18"
		c. 30"
		d. 40"
The rodding clearance for a 3" drain is 18". Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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32.	Why are plumbing traps required to be vented?
		a. To avoid traps being drained of their liquid seals
		b. To convey sewer gas to outside air
		c. To enable drains to drain better
		d. All of the above
Installing vents on plumbing traps enable the drains to drain faster and better. This is due to the air that is allowed to circulate in the drainage system as a result of the vent. Self-cleaning traps, such as P traps, are at risk of being drained of their liquid trap seals if they are not vented. Sewer gas is a health hazard. Vents protect against this risk by transporting sewer gas to open air outside of the building where plumbing is installed. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	A horizontal drain pipe with a diameter of four inches is required to have __________.
		a. A cleanout installed vertically
		b. A cleanout installed at the beginning of the piping run
		c. A cleanout installed at the end of the piping run
		d. A cleanout with a flush-mount plug
Horizontal drain pipes are required to have cleanouts installed at the end of the piping run. Additional cleanouts may be needed when the drain extends for a distance in excess of 50 feet. In the case of the drain terminating at a water closet, the water closet can be considered a cleanout. Likewise, a horizontal drain equipped with a P-trap is considered to have a cleanout as a result of the removable U-bend of the trap. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	The maximum allowable water pressure in residential water distribution systems is __________.
		a. 40 pounds per square inch
		b. 60 pounds per square inch
		c. 80 pounds per square inch
		d. 100 pounds per square inch
Residential plumbing systems are to be equipped with water distribution systems that operate at no more than 80 pounds per square inch. Street pressure for the water delivered from a municipality can be higher than this. If this is the case, the installation of a pressure reducing valve is required near the connection between a water service and a water distribution pipe. This valve allows you to adjust the pressure rating to remain in compliance with the plumbing code. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	Which of the following types of joints can be used to join dissimilar piping materials?
		a. Mechanical
		b. Soldered
		c. Welded
		d. Brazed
Mechanical joints are used when joining dissimilar pipes. These mechanical joints can be made with compression joints or mechanical-sealing devices. The devices used to make the joints are required to have approved elastomeric seals. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	Copper with a green stamp is used in a Med Gas system. What grade of copper does the color denote?
		a. M
		b. L
		c. K
		d. Both B and C
A green stamp denotes the heavier grade of K copper. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	What type of water valve should be installed on a water heater?
		a. Check Valve
		b. Stop and Waste Valve
		c. Full Port Valve
		d. Needle Valve
Only a full port valve can be used on a water heater on the cold inlet side of the water piping. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Electrical

38.	A premises wiring system supplied by a grounded ac electrical service, shall have a grounding electrode conductor connected to _____ .
		a. the grounded service conductor
		b. the service disconnect enclosure
		c. the equipment grounding conductor
		d. the meter socket enclosure
The grounded conductor of an ac service is connected to a grounding electrode system to limit the voltage to ground imposed on the system by lightning and line surges. It also stabilizes the voltage to ground during normal operation, including short circuits. Refer to Section 250.24(A). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	A conductor with THHN marked on the insulation has a temperature rating of ______.
		a. 90 degrees F
		b. 90 degrees C
		c. 75 degrees F
		d. 75 degrees C
As shown in Table 310.104(A) and Table 310.15(B)(16) conductors with THHN insulation have a temperature rating of 90ºC. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	At the electrical service provided for a residence, the service-drop conductors shall have a MINIMUM clearance from final grade of _____.
		a. 8 feet
		b. 10 feet
		c. 12 feet
		d. 15 feet
To minimize the potential for making inadvertent contact, overhead service-drop conductors are to have a clearance from final grade of not less than 10 ft., where the voltage does not exceed 150 volts to ground. Refer to Section 230.24(B)(1). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	Which one of the following listed circuit breakers is NOT a standard ampere rating as per the NEC?
		a. 75 amperes
		b. 90 amperes
		c. 35 amperes
		d. 110 amperes
Standard ampere ratings of fuses and fixed-trip circuit breakers are listed in Table 240.6(A). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	In Class II, Division 1 locations, an approved method of connection of conduit to boxes or cabinets is _____ .
		a. compression fittings
		b. threaded bosses
		c. welding
		d. all of these
In Class II, Division 1 locations, boxes or fittings shall be provided with threaded bosses for connection to conduit or cable terminations and shall be dusttight. This requirement helps to prevent the entrance of combustible dust. Refer to Section 502.10(A)(3). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	Where used outdoors, aluminum grounding electrode conductors shall not be terminated within _____ of the earth.
		a. 18 inches
		b. 24 inches
		c. 30 inches
		d. 36 inches
To prevent corrosion of aluminum grounding electrode conductors, where used outside, they are not permitted to be terminated within 18 inches of the earth. Refer to Section 250.64(A). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Where the motor controller also serves as a disconnecting means, it shall open all _____ conductors to the motor.
		a. grounded
		b. neutral
		c. grounding
		d. ungrounded
As allowed by the exception to Section 430.84, where the motor controller also serves as the disconnecting means, it shall open all ungrounded conductors to the motor. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	What is the MAXIMUM standard size overcurrent protective device that may be used to protect a storage-type water heater with a rating of 4,500 watts, 240-volts, single-phase?
		a. 20 amperes
		b. 25 amperes
		c. 30 amperes
		d. 35 amperes
In compliance with Section 422.11(E)(3), the overcurrent protective device for a non-motor operated appliance is permitted to be sized at 150% of the current rating of the appliance. Where the value selected does not correspond with the rating of a standard size overcurrent device, you are permitted to go up to the next standard size as shown in Table 240.6(A). I = 4,500 watts = 18.75 amperes x 150% = 28.15 amperes 240 volts Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	Edison base fuses are prohibited _____.
		a. for new work in all buildings
		b. in commercial occupancies for existing work
		c. in residential occupancies for existing installations
		d. in damp locations
As mandated in Section 240.51(B), Edison-base type fuses shall be used only for replacements in existing installations. The purpose of this requirement is to phase out the old-style fuses. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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47.	According to the NEC, recessed lay-in type luminaires installed in suspended ceilings shall:
		a. be supported independently of the ceiling grid.
		b. not be attached to the ceiling framing members.
		c. be attached to building support framing members.
		d. be attached to the ceiling framing members by bolts, screws rivets or clips.
Where lay-in type luminaires are installed in suspended ceilings, Section 410.36(B) calls for the luminaires to be securely fastened to the ceiling framing members by mechanical means. The use of bolts, screws, rivets and clips are permitted for the fastening means. Clips that are used to support a luminaire to the framing members of a suspended ceiling assembly must be of a type listed for the application. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

HVAC

48.	Which of the following would be considered an inductive load?
		a. Transformer
		b. Start capacitor
		c. Solid state relay
		d. Electric heat strip
An inductive load is a load consisting of a coil of wire which will cause current to lag voltage; such as a motor or transformer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	Heat can travel by:
		a. latent, sensible and radiation.
		b. convection, compression and radiation.
		c. radiation only.
		d. conduction, convection and radiation.
Heat transfer is a discipline of thermal engineering that concerns the conversion, and exchange of thermal energy and heat between physical principles. Heat transfer is classified into various methods, such as thermal conduction, thermal convection, and thermal radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	What does a temperature differential across a filter-drier indicate?
		a. Normal operation
		b. Refrigerant overcharge
		c. Restricted filter-drier
		d. Refrigerant undercharge
When a system has a restricted filter drier, it causes a pressure drop across the drier, thus restricting the flow of refrigerant, and the difference in pressure results in a temperature drop across the drier at the point of the restriction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

51.	An increase in water flow, when using a water cooled condenser, would _____.
		a. increase the power consumption of the compressor
		b. increase the fouling factor of the water
		c. decrease the operating discharge pressures
		d. increase the power consumption of the compressor
By increasing water flow, this will cause the discharge pressure to drop. More water at a cooler temperature will absorb more heat and lower the pressure. Water cooled condensers are designed to maintain a 10 degree differential between the refrigerant and water temperature. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Welding

52.	What type of electrodes must be used with a process the produces no flux residue (slag) that covers the entire weld?
		a. solid
		b. metal cored
		c. flux cored
		d. Both a and b
A process that produces no flux residue (slag) must only use solid and or metal cored electrode wires. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

53.	The endurance limit of a material must be considered when concerned about which property?
		a. Fatigue
		b. Tensile strength
		c. Yield strength
		d. Hardness
The ability of a material to be effected by repeated load (generally more than 250,000 cycles) is considered fatigue or cyclic loading. The endurance limit of a material is the load that can be applied for an unlimited number of cycles without failure occurring. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

54.	If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is referred to as:
		a. Incomplete penetration
		b. Incomplete bonding
		c. Incomplete inclusion
		d. Incomplete fusion
If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is referred to as Incomplete fusion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

55.	Arc time is:
		a. the total time the welder is clocked into work.
		b. the time the arc is on during the arc welding operation.
		c. the non-arc time.
		d. the total arc and non-arc time.
This is also considered the operating factor and is thought of as the percentage of a shift that a welder/welding operator is actually welding. For robotic and mechanized welding, it can be as high as 90% while for manual and semiautomatic welding it can be as low as 10-20% operating factors. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Miscellaneous Construction

56.	When a vertical wall is correctly installed, it is said to be?
		a. Square
		b. Vertical
		c. Plumb
		d. Upright
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

57.	Which is the most durable wallpaper?
		a. Vinyl
		b. Hemp
		c. Foil
		d. Burlap
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

58.	How deep is a standard closet?
		a. 16 inches
		b. 18 inches
		c. 22 inches
		d. 24 inches
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

59.	In an attic, what is the minimum clearance?
		a. 24 inches
		b. 28 inches
		c. 30 inches
		d. 32 inches
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

60.	For scaffolding, what is the minimum railing height?
		a. 48 inches
		b. 42 inches
		c. 40 inches
		d. 36 inches
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

61.	When is asbestos most dangerous?
		a. Encapsulated
		b. Friable
		c. Forming
		d. None of the above
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

62.	Which is the smallest wire gauge?
		a. 3
		b. 1
		c. 0
		d. 00
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

63.	How high are standard kitchen cabinets?
		a. 38 inches
		b. 36 inches
		c. 34 inches
		d. 32 inches
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

64.	One story buildings should have a minimum foundation depth of?
		a. 24 inches
		b. 18 inches
		c. 12 inches
		d. 6 inches
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

65.	The minimum gauge for galvanized steel valley flashing should be?
		a. No. 36
		b. No. 34
		c. No. 30
		d. No. 28
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

66.	What is the purpose of the fascia board?
		a. Esthetics
		b. Waterproofing
		c. Drainage
		d. Protection
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

67.	What materials are best used for exterior siding?
		a. Redwood and Pine
		b. Cedar and Pine
		c. Redwood and Cedar
		d. Fur and Redwood
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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Ray Holder

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Charles Redecker

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Terry Lunt

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at HVAC Excellence, The Leading HVAC Authority. The questions are based on industry standards and offer a comprehensive coverage of the fundamental subject matter found on most HVACR certification exams.

Edward Bohnart

is an AWS certified master welder and welding educator who has over thirty five years of experience in the welding industry. He has served as a Board member of the American Welding Society for over a decade and was its National President from 1995 – 1996.Ray Holder is a Certified Electrical Trade Instructor & Electrician License Exam Expert. Ray Holder has worked in the electrical industry for over 45 years as an apprentice, journeyman, master, field engineer, estimator, business manager, contractor, inspector, consultant and instructor.

John Howley, Jr.

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