2025 Edition

Biology Practice Exam

Try this free biology practice test to see how prepared you are for a biology exam. Whether you are in high school or college, you are likely to have a biology requirement. Biology tests cover such subjects as the chemistry of life, evolution, genetics and ecology.

For a more comprehensive study of biology, try our 400 question Biology Practice Exam.

View Answers as You Go

View 1 Question at a Time

1.	The net effect of photosynthesis, chemically, is reduction, leading to the formation of which products?
		a. Carbon dioxide and carbohydrates
		b. Carbon dioxide and protein
		c. Oxygen and carbohydrates
		d. Oxygen and ATP
The reactants in the process of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water. Sunlight is needed for the reactions to occur. The products of photosynthesis are oxygen and glucose, a simple carbohydrate. ATP is used in photosynthesis but is neither a reactant nor a product. ATP is produced in a different process called cellular respiration. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

2.	A cell membrane is ______________?
		a. Permeable
		b. Semipermeable
		c. Nonpermeable
		d. None of the above.
A cell membrane is a thin layer of molecules that surrounds the cell. Its function is to allow certain materials to enter the cell, yet, keep harmful materials out. In order to do this, the cell controls which substances can enter the cell through the membrane. The cell membrane is selectively permeable (or semipermeable), which means that certain molecules, such as oxygen and water, are permitted to enter the cell. Molecules that are not recognized as helpful are not able to pass through the membrane. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	A cell uses which of the following to accelerate chemical reactions enabling its metabolic machinery to operate?
		a. Centrasome
		b. Lysosome
		c. Golgi apparatus
		d. Enzymes
Enzymes are catalysts, chemicals that speed up chemical reactions. The conditions inside most cells do not allow reactions to proceed quickly enough to support life. For example, temperatures inside organisms are not hot enough for chemical reactions to take place quickly. Enzymes increase the rates of biological chemical reactions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	Which of the following is not part of the metabolic sequence?
		a. Photosynthesis
		b. Respiration
		c. Hydoplasm
		d. Digestion
Inside cells, sequences of chemical reactions take place to support life. These sequences are known as metabolic pathways. Photosynthesis, respiration, and digestion are all examples of metabolic pathways, or sequences. Photosynthesis is the metabolic pathway that produces oxygen and glucose in organisms with chlorophyll. Respiration breaks down molecules called ATP for cells to use as energy. Digestion breaks down food to be used to make energy in the form of ATP. Hydroplasm is not a known metabolic sequence. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	Which of the following are NOT organelles found in animal cells?
		a. Nucleus and golgi apparatus
		b. Cellular membrane and cytoplasm
		c. Mitochondria and ribosomes
		d. Chloroplast and central vacuole
Chloroplasts and central vacuole are important organelles in plant cells. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and are the site of photosynthesis. Central vacuoles are used to store water in plant cells. All the other organelles listed are important to the function of animal cells and plant cells. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	Light initiates different types of cellular reactions. Which of the following responses to light converts the energy from light into a gain of potential energy?
		a. Phototaxis
		b. Photoperiodism
		c. Photosynthesis
		d. All of the above
Photosynthesis is the process plant cells use to convert oxygen, water and sunlight into a usable form of energy. The product of photosynthesis is glucose (sugar) molecules. Glucose molecules are a form of potential energy that can be broken down by an organism to produce energy in the form of ATP molecules. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	The functional unit of heredity is the _____________.
		a. Gene
		b. Chromosome
		c. Protein
		d. Nucleus
A gene is the basic unit of heredity. Genes are made of DNA sequences and act as instructions for making proteins (although not all genes make proteins). Genes are found on chromosomes. Chromosomes are located in a cell's nucleus. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	DNA exists in the form of __________ strands of DNA coiled about each other.
		a. Double
		b. Triple
		c. Quadruple
		d. Quintuple
DNA is made of two strands of nucleotides (basic units of DNA). The DNA molecule looks like a twisted ladder and is referred to as a double helix. Each nucleotide contains a sugar molecule and a phosphate group, along with a nitrogen base. The sugar molecules and phosphate groups make up the sides of the ladder, and the nitrogen bases make up the “steps” of the ladder. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Genes are located within the cytoplasm of the cell.
		Nucleus
		Mitochondria
		Cytoplasm
		Endoplasmic reticulum
Genes are sequences of DNA on a chromosome. All DNA is located inside a cell's nucleus. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	Genetic information is transferred from the nucleus to cytoplasm by way of _______________.
		a. Hydrochloric acid
		b. Dexyribonucleic acid
		c. Ribonucleic acid
		d. Amino acid
Messenger RNA (ribonucleic acid) transfers genetic information from the DNA in a cell's nucleus to ribosomes. In the ribosome, the information coded onto messenger RNA is used to make proteins. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	When sexual reproduction occurs in multicellular organisms, a process takes place before cells fuse whereby a cell is left with half of its chromosomes, enabling the creation of a cell with a characteristic chromosome number. What is this process called?
		a. Osmosis
		b. Meiosis
		c. Anabolism
		d. Differentiation
During meiosis, gametes (sex cells) are formed by reducing the number of chromosomes found in somatic (body) cells by one half. This occurs so that when two gametes, one from each parent, fuse together, the embryo will contain the correct number of chromosomes. Without meiosis, offspring cells would contain double the number of chromosomes of normal adults and they would not be viable. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	Which of the following represents the largest group of biological classification?
		a. Kingdom
		b. Species
		c. Class
		d. Genus
Biology uses a system of classification to group organisms together based on their characteristics. The levels of classification, from largest (most inclusive) to smallest (most specific), include domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

13.	There are two types of cells, eukaryotic and prokaryotic. Which of the following cellular structures are found in both types of cell?
		DNA
		Golgi apparatus
		Mitochondria
		Chloroplast
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both contain DNA. Prokaryotic cells are found in bacteria and their structure is much more simple than eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells have a few simple cellular structures such as a nucleoid region, ribosomes, and a plasma membrane. Eukaryotic cells have more highly developed cellular structures including organelles that support the function of the cell. Golgi apparatus and mitochondria are found in eukaryotic cells. Chloroplasts are found in eukaryotic cells that contain chlorophyll, such as plants. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	What it is the name given to specialized structures within cells responsible for carrying out specific functions such as providing energy and producing hormones?
		a. Mitiosis
		b. Apoptosis
		c. Archaeans
		d. Organelles
Organelles are specialized structures in cells that support the cellular functions. For example, mitochondria are organelles that synthesize energy; ribosomes synthesize protein; chloroplasts convert sunlight, carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and sugar. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	All of the following are similarities between unicellular organisms and multicellular organisms, except _____________.
		a. Internal complexity
		b. Division of labor
		c. Size
		d. Ecological relationships
Unicellular organisms are very small compared to most multicellular organisms. If they were as large as a multicellular organism, their surface area to volume ratio would be too low to support life. Staying small gives unicellular organisms a high surface area to volume ratio. Surface area to volume ratio refers to the amount of surface area on the outside of the cell compared to the cell's volume. Larger cells have less surface area compared to their volume. Molecules move into the cell, out of the cell and through the cell slowly through the cell membrane. Having a large surface area provides more space for molecules to diffuse across the cell membrane and less of a distance to travel inside the cell to supply organelles with materials needed for metabolism. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	How many chromosomes does an individual human person have?
		a. 23
		b. 46
		c. 64
		d. 82
Humans have 46 chromosomes. Each parent contributes 23 chromosomes in a gamete (sex cell). When the gametes combine to form an embryo, the embryo then contains two sets of chromosomes, equal to a total of 46 chromosomes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	A multicellular organism is:
		a. A group of differentiated eukaryotic cells that work together to support the function of an organism
		b. A colony of single-celled organisms
		c. The simplest form of life on Earth
		d. Only contains prokaryotic cells
Multicellular organisms include organisms with more than one eukaryotic cell. Animals and plants are all multicellular. All prokaryotic organisms are unicellular, meaning the entire organism consists of a single cell. There are some unicellular eukaryotic organisms, such as protists and some fungi (yeast). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	*The term thallus* refers to the plant-like structure of which of the following organisms?**
		a. Brown algae
		b. Lichens
		c. Fungus
		d. Mold
Algae bodies that are plantlike, such as the structure of brown algae, are referred to as a thallus. Where plants have roots, stems and leaves, a thallus consists of a holdfast (rootlike part), stipe (stemlike part), and blades (leaflike parts). Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	Single-celled protists with animal-like behavior belong to the phylum ______________.
		a. Metazoa
		b. Porifera
		c. Protozoa
		d. Mollusca
Organisms in Kingdom Protista include eukaryotes that do not share all of the characteristics of organisms in the kingdoms Animalia, Fungi or Plantae. Within Kingdom Protista are a group of protists that behave like animals. These single-celled organisms are in the Phylum Protozoa. Protozoa include flagellates, ciliates, amoeba and sporozoans. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	The bodies of all insects have _______ major divisions.
		a. 2
		b. 3
		c. 4
		d. 5
The three major body parts of all insects (Class Insecta) are the head, thorax and abdomen. Many animals that are similar in size and appearance are mistaken for insects, such as ticks, mites and spiders. However, these creatures are in the Class Arachnida, not Class Insecta. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	Sterile female honey bees are called _________________.
		a. Drones
		b. Queen
		c. Guards
		d. Workers
Honey bees live in a colony with a division of labor. The worker bees form the largest group of bees in the hive. They serve many different roles, such as removing dead bees, feeding baby drones, packing pollen, building the honeycomb, and taking care of the queen bee. The queen bee is the only fertile female bee in the colony. Worker bees remain infertile as long as the queen bee is alive. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

22.	Which of the following organisms is a vertabrate?
		Frogs
		Insects
		Earthworms
		Sea stars
Vertebrates are multicellular organisms in Kingdom Animalia. Vertebrates are animals with a backbone, and include mammals, birds, fish, reptiles and amphibians. Insects, earthworms and sea stars belong to a group of animals without a backbone, invertebrates. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	Many animals protect themselves with an exoskeleton. Which of the following is an example of an animal with an exoskeleton?
		a. Mollusk
		b. Bird
		c. Turtle
		d. Snake
Exoskeletons are skeletons located on the outside of an animal's body. They are used for protection and to support the animal. Mollusks and insects are examples of animals with endoskeletons. Birds, turtles and snakes are all animals with endoskeletons. Endoskeletons are internal skeletons. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	Locomotion in Metazoa is usually due to the contraction of what?
		a. Skeleton
		b. Muscle
		c. Skin
		d. Nerves
Organisms in Kingdom Animalia have muscles and nerves. If an animal can move from one place to another (known as locomotion), it is doing so by contracting its muscles. Not all animals have skin and/or a skeleton. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	In normal sexual reproduction, two mature gametes fuse to form a(n) _____________.
		a. Gonad
		b. Ovary
		c. Embryogeny
		d. Zygote
Gametes are haploid cells, which means they contain half the number of chromosomes that body cells contain. Gametes are used in sexual reproduction to form an offspring. When two gametes fuse together during sexual reproduction, they form a zygote. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	In humans, how do the sex chromosomes differ between males and females?
		a. Males have two X chromosomes and females have two Y chromosomes
		b. Females have two X chromosomes and males have two Y chromosomes
		c. Males have two X chromosomes and females one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
		d. Females have two X chromosomes and males one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
In humans, there are two sex chromosomes, referred to as “X” and “Y.” Females have two X chromosomes in each body cell and in each sex cell (gamete). Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. If a person inherits two X chromosomes, one from each parent, that person will develop into a female. If a person inherits an X chromosome from the mother and a Y chromosome from the father, that person will develop into a male. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Changes in the genetic makeup of an organism may be due to which of the following?
		a. New combinations of chromosomes
		b. Chromosome mutation
		c. Gene mututation
		d. All of the above
There are three ways genetic variation may take place: New combinations of chromosomes result from sexual reproduction; chromosome mutation and gene mutation occur during mitosis and/or meiosis. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	The phrase "survival of the fittest" is an alternate phrase expressing which of the following principles?
		a. Natural Selection
		b. Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics
		c. Mutation
		d. Mendelian Inheritance
“Survival of the fittest” is an expression used to describe natural selection. Natural selection takes place when organisms with the characteristics best suited for their environment survive and produce fertile offspring. The “fittest” in the phrase is referring to the organisms that have the characteristics that allow them to survive in their environment. In theory, these organisms will not only survive, but will also reproduce. Their offspring will also have the characteristics that allowed the parent to successfully survive. Over time, these characteristics will continue to be passed on to future generations. Organisms that lack the characteristics to survive will die before reproducing, and therefore, not pass on the less desirable characteristics. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	Which of the following directly (as opposed to indirectly) supports Charles Darwin's theory of evolution?
		a. Evidence from Paleontology
		b. Evidence from Geographical Distribution
		c. Evidence from Physiology
		d. Evidence from Genetics
Genetic evidence is the most direct type of evidence used to support the theory of evolution. Since adaptations are passed along genetically, from one generation to another, evidence for evolution can be collected by examining the genome of individuals of the same species and comparing it to genetic information of ancestral species, species of the same phylogenetic groups and/or common ancestors between several species. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	___________ occurs when organisms of different species mate and form offspring.
		Hybridization
		Interference
		Speciation
		Polyploidy
Hybridization occurs when individuals of different species mate and form offspring. The offspring are referred to as hybrids. In order for hybridization to occur, the parents must be similar to each other. For example, a horse and a donkey can reproduce to form a mule. However, a fly cannot mate with a bird to create a new organism. When hybridization occurs, the offspring are typically sterile. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

31.	Which cellular structure is responsible for producing ribosomal RNA and is often called the "factory" of the cell?
		a. Nucleus
		b. Endoplasmic reticulum
		c. Golgi apparatus
		d. Nucleolus
The nucleolus, located within the nucleus, synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembles ribosomes. It's often referred to as the cellular "factory" because it produces essential components for protein synthesis. While the nucleus plays a role in cellular activities, it doesn't specifically produce rRNA like the nucleolus. The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It consists of an extensive network of membranes and comes in two forms: rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER), studded with ribosomes on its surface, involved in protein synthesis, and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER), which lacks ribosomes and is associated with lipid synthesis, detoxification, and storage of calcium ions. Golgi apparatus further processes and sorts proteins received from the endoplasmic reticulum for transport to their eventual destinations; lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
		a. G1 phase
		b. S phase
		c. G2 phase
		d. M phase
DNA replication occurs during the Synthesis (S) phase of the cell cycle. This phase is dedicated to the synthesis of DNA, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information during cell division. The G1 and G2 phases are critical checkpoints, but they are not specifically associated with DNA replication. Cell division occurs during M phase, which consists of nuclear division followed by cytoplasmic division. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	In cellular respiration, which stage produces the majority of ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?
		a. Glycolysis
		b. Krebs cycle
		c. Electron transport chain
		d. Fermentation
The electron transport chain, the final stage of cellular respiration, produces the majority of ATP. This process involves the movement of electrons through protein complexes, generating the energy required for ATP synthesis. While glycolysis and the Krebs cycle contribute to ATP production, they don't produce as much as the electron transport chain. While fermentation helps regenerate NAD+ and allows glycolysis to continue, it is less efficient in terms of ATP production compared to aerobic respiration, where the electron transport chain produces a significant amount of ATP. Therefore, in the absence of oxygen, cells resort to fermentation to sustain energy production, albeit at a lower efficiency. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Which of the following is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
		a. Protein synthesis
		b. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
		c. Ribosome production
		d. ATP synthesis
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification. It produces lipids essential for cell membranes and breaks down drugs and toxins in liver cells. While the rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis, it is not primarily responsible for lipid synthesis and detoxification. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	What is the primary function of the enzyme amylase?
		a. Breaks down lipids
		b. Breaks down proteins
		c. Breaks down carbohydrates
		d. Synthesizes nucleic acids
Amylase is specifically designed to break down carbohydrates, converting starches into simpler sugars. Options a, b, and d describe functions associated with other enzymes or processes, such as lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids, which are not within the primary scope of amylase. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	Which of the following is a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells?
		a. Presence of a nucleus
		b. Membrane-bound organelles
		c. Circular DNA
		d. Larger size
Prokaryotic cells have a single, circular DNA molecule in their nucleoid region. Options a and b describe features associated with eukaryotic cells, and option d is not a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	What is the primary function of the hormone insulin in the human body?
		a. Stimulates growth
		b. Regulates blood sugar levels
		c. Controls metabolism
		d. Enhances immune response
Insulin primarily regulates blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. Options a, c, and d describe functions unrelated to insulin's primary role in glucose regulation, such as growth stimulation, general metabolism control, and immune response enhancement. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that plays a crucial role in regulating Earth's temperature?
		a. Oxygen
		b. Carbon dioxide
		c. Nitrogen
		d. Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide is a significant greenhouse gas that traps heat in the Earth's atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect. Options a, c, and d, are atmospheric gases but do not have the same impact on regulating temperature as carbon dioxide. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	What is the process by which plants lose water vapor through small openings in their leaves?
		a. Transpiration
		b. Photosynthesis
		c. Respiration
		d. Absorption
Transpiration is the specific process of water loss from plants through stomata. Options b, c, and d refer to other plant processes which are distinct from the mechanism of water vapor release during transpiration. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, without the use of energy?
		a. Active transport
		b. Osmosis
		c. Facilitated diffusion
		d. Passive diffusion
Passive diffusion is the natural movement of molecules along their concentration gradient without energy input. Active transport, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion involve energy expenditure or specific transport proteins, making them distinct from passive diffusion. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	Which of the following is a characteristic of asexual reproduction?
		a. Genetic variation
		b. Involves the union of gametes
		c. Results in offspring with traits from both parents
		d. Produces genetically identical offspring
Asexual reproduction involves the creation of genetically identical offspring without the fusion of gametes. This results in offspring inheriting the exact genetic information from a single parent. Genetic variation, gamete union, and traits from both parents are associated with sexual reproduction, not asexual reproduction. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

42.	In the scientific classification of living organisms, which category is more specific than "phylum" but more general than "species"?
		a. Order
		b. Class
		c. Family
		d. Genus
In biological classification, "class" is more specific than "phylum" but broader than "order." It serves as an intermediate taxonomic category. "Order," "family," and "genus" are more specific categories than "class," and "species" is the most specific level. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	Which of the following is a characteristic feature of viruses?
		a. Single-celled organisms
		b. Lack of genetic material
		c. Ability to carry out metabolism
		d. Dependence on a host cell for replication
Viruses lack cellular structures and metabolic machinery, relying on host cells for replication. They contain genetic material (DNA or RNA) but are not cells. Options a and c are incorrect as viruses are not single-celled organisms and lack the ability to carry out independent metabolism. Option b is incorrect as viruses do contain genetic material, albeit simpler than cellular genomes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	In genetics, what term describes the expression of an individual's genetic makeup?
		a. Genotype
		b. Phenotype
		c. Allele
		d. Homozygous
Phenotype refers to the observable traits that result from the interaction of an individual's genetic makeup (genotype) with environmental influences. It encompasses the physical, biochemical, and behavioral characteristics that can be observed or measured. Options a, c, and d are related to specific genetic components but do not directly describe the expressed traits, making them incorrect in the context of describing the observable characteristics of an individual. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	What is the primary function of the kidneys in the human body?
		a. Regulation of body temperature
		b. Filtration of blood and excretion of waste products
		c. Production of red blood cells
		d. Digestion of food
The kidneys play a crucial role in filtering blood, removing waste products, and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. This function ensures the body's internal environment remains within optimal conditions. Options a, c, and d describe functions unrelated to the primary role of the kidneys. The kidneys are not involved in the regulation of body temperature, production of red blood cells, or digestion of food. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	What is the role of the enzyme pepsin in the digestive system?
		a. Breakdown of carbohydrates
		b. Breakdown of proteins
		c. Breakdown of lipids
		d. Absorption of nutrients
Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that specifically breaks down proteins into smaller peptides. Options a, c, and d describe functions associated with other digestive enzymes or processes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	In which organ does the majority of nutrient absorption occur in the human digestive system?
		a. Stomach
		b. Small intestine
		c. Large intestine
		d. Liver
The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption due to its extensive surface area with villi and microvilli. This efficient absorption process ensures essential nutrients are assimilated into the bloodstream for various metabolic functions. Options a, c, and d are associated with other digestive or metabolic functions. The stomach initiates protein digestion, the large intestine focuses on water absorption, and the liver contributes to metabolic processes but is not a site for nutrient absorption. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	Which phylum do insects belong to in the animal kingdom classification?
		a. Mollusca
		b. Arthropoda
		c. Chordata
		d. Annelida
Insects belong to the phylum Arthropoda, which is characterized by segmented bodies and exoskeletons made of chitin. This diverse phylum includes not only insects but also arachnids, crustaceans, and myriapods. Options a, c, and d correspond to other animal phyla--Mollusca, Chordata, and Annelida, respectively--each with distinct characteristics such as soft bodies, notochords, or segmented worms, setting them apart from insects in the animal kingdom. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	Which organ system is responsible for producing hormones that regulate various body functions?
		a. Digestive system
		b. Nervous system
		c. Endocrine system
		d. Respiratory system
The endocrine system is tasked with producing hormones that act as chemical messengers, regulating a multitude of physiological processes in the body. These hormones are released directly into the bloodstream and target specific organs or tissues. Options a, b, and d are associated with other organ systems: the digestive system focuses on nutrient processing, the nervous system on electrical signaling, and the respiratory system on gas exchange. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?
		a. Glucose
		b. Sucrose
		c. Lactose
		d. Maltose
Glucose is a monosaccharide, representing the simplest form of sugar, consisting of a single sugar unit. Options b, c, and d, on the other hand, are examples of disaccharides--sucrose, lactose, and maltose--each composed of two sugar molecules through chemical bonding. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Study Online Instantly

Click to Save 50% Now

51.	Which organelle is responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste and debris?
		a. Mitochondria
		b. Lysosome
		c. Endoplasmic reticulum
		d. Vacuole
Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and are responsible for breaking down cellular waste, damaged organelles, and foreign materials. While other organelles contribute to cellular functions, none specialize in the recycling process like lysosomes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Bookmark Page