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2026 Edition

MBLEx Practice Exam

Take our free MBLEx practice exams to prepare for your massage therapist certification exam.  It covers subjects tested by the MBLEx. Our MBLEx test prep is written by certified instructors in massage therapy. For comprehensive study, use our 1,000 question MBLEx Practice Exam.

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Anatomy & Physiology 

1 A client is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Abduction means to move away from the midline. Adduction means to add to the midline, or bring it closer.

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2 Which of the following suffixes indicate a sensitivity to pain?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The suffix "-algesia" pertains to a condition in which the client is either very sensitive to pain (hyperalgesia) or has a difficulty perceiving pain (hypoalgesia). The prefix "-asthenia" may sound similar, but it pertains to a lack of strength.
3 What type of joint would be affected by rotator cuff tendinitis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Synovial joints are characterized by synovial fluid within the joint space. Types of synovial joints include gliding, condyloid, saddle, hinge, ball and socket, and pivot joints. Rotator cuff muscles include supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis. Inflammation of the rotator cuff tendons (tendinitis) would impede the range of motion in the shoulder, which is a ball and socket joint.
4 This is an image of a long bone. The arrow is pointing to ________________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The arrow points to an area of spongy bone tissue. Spongy bone has numerous open spaces separated and connected by trabeculae. This gives it greater strength and resilience and also decreases the overall weight of the skeleton.
5 The kidneys are free floating organs that are held in place by adipose tissue in the thoracic area. What structure protects the kidneys from harm?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The floating ribs attach on the spine but do not have any sternal attachments. The 11th and 12th floating ribs cover the kidneys to protect it from damage.

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6 Which of the following muscles attach to the ischial tuberosity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The ischial tuberosity is the posterior portion of the ramus of the ischium, where body weight is supported. The hamstrings attach to the ischial tuberosity at the proximal end.
7 You go outside into cold weather without a coat. Your body reacts to the exposure with goosebumps and shivers. These reactions are all an attempt to return your body to ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Homeostasis is the balance or stability internally sought and maintained by the body no matter the external shifts. Hemostasis is the stopping of blood flow. Hypothermia is a dangerous state when the body gets too cold and is not able to produce adequate heat. Orthostatic Hypotension is the experience of dizziness or a faint feeling when standing up or coming upright due to low blood pressure.
8 A client has a hairline fracture in the left anterior, medial, distal femur. Where is this fracture located?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The left anterior, medial, distal femur describes the area that is at the bottom of the inner femur, on the front of the bone.
9 Which of the following is not one of the organ systems of the body?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The organ systems of the body consist of the Respiratory, Cardiovascular/Circulatory, Digestive, Immune, Lymphatic, Skeletal, Muscular, Nervous, Reproductive, Renal, Integumentary, Urinary and Endocrine systems. Chakra names the energy wheels of the subtle body system.
10 All of the following are anatomical planes of the body except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A distal plane does not exist. Distal is an anatomical term meaning something away from the center of the body or the point of attachment. The sagittal plane is a plane that divides the body into left and right parts. The transverse plane divides the body into inferior and superior parts. The axial plane is the same as the transverse plane.

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11 The five bone types are:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
There are no medium or round bones, and sagittal is a plane dividing the body into left and right sides. Here are examples of each of the five types of bones:
• Flat bone - sternum, cranial bones, scapulae
• Long bone - humerus, radius, femur, tibia
• Short bone - tarsals, carpals
• Irregular bone - vertebrae, sacrum
• Sesamoid bone - patella
12 The scapula hosts many attachment sites. The lateral border is the attachment site for the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The lateral border of the scapula is the attachment site for the teres major and teres minor. The subscapularis attaches at the lesser tubercle and infraspinatus attaches to the anterior aspect of the scapula.

Kinesiology 

13 What muscle assists the prime mover by encouraging the same joint motion while helping to stabilize the moving joint?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Synergists help the prime mover, or the agonist, and act on movable joints. An antagonist resists the agonist to move in the opposite direction. The fixator is a type of synergist that holds bones so tension can be used to move the agonist.

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14 While flexing the little toe, which muscle do we employ?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The flexor digiti minimi brevis flexes the little toe. The extensor hallucis brevis extends the great toe. The flexor hallucis brevis flexes the great toe and the abductor digiti minimi abducts the little toe.
15 This set of muscles perform the same actions and are synergists:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Both latissimus dorsi and teres major perform adduction, extension and medial rotation of the glenohumeral joint. Pectoralis major and minor act on two different joints. Gluteus medius and maximus have similar actions but gluteus medius also flexes the coxal joint. Both supraspinatus and teres minor hold the glenohumeral head in the glenoid cavity, but that's the only similarity with their actions.
16 An isolated contraction of which of the following is antagonistic to the action of vastus lateralis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Biceps femoris short head performs extension at the knee while vastus lateralis only performs extension of the knee. Gracilis performs adduction and medial rotation, while rectus femoris and vastus lateralis are two of the quadriceps muscles that extend the knee.

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17 Muscle spindles are most sensitive to what type of stimulus?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The muscle spindles are one of the proprioceptors that tell the brain where our body is in space by detecting muscle length. There is a stretch reflex when the muscle is stretched quickly. This is when the muscle spindle innervates a motor neuron to concentrically contract the stretching muscle.
18 The teres major is called this muscle's "little helper" as its synergist:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Both the teres major and latissimus dorsi adduct, medially rotate and extend the arm. The deltoids actions are abduction, flexion and medial rotation of the arm. The pectoralis major is responsible for flexion, extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm. The rectus abdominis is responsible for flexion of the vertebral column and abdominal compression.
19 When performing a post isometric relaxation stretch the target muscle is lengthened until a mild stretch is felt. At that point the target muscle is contracted and then relaxed so the muscle can lengthen further. This is an example of innervating this proprioceptor:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Golgi tendon organ detects increases in tension of a muscle to prevent injury. If muscle tension is substantial in relation to the amount of force the muscle can generate it inhibits the muscle's ability to contract. Utilizing this reflex allows one to increase a stretch without the muscle resisting it. The muscle spindle when stimulated contracts the muscle. The Meissner corpuscle detects slippage of skin. And the Pacinian corpuscle detects pressure and high vibration frequency in the skin.

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Pathology & Contraindications 

20 When working with adult clients who are on the autism spectrum, which of the following must be taken into consideration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Many people on the autism spectrum suffer from sensory overload so the therapist should consider soft music, low lighting and possible visual communication. With the risk that the client's nervous systems could be overloaded with heightened sensations, the therapist should use proper pressure according to what the client can tolerate.
21 Olecranon bursitis occurs at which joint in the body?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Olecranon Bursitis is an inflammation of the bursa at olecranon process of the proximal aspect of the ulna. The function of the bursa is to cushion the structures around it, especially during movement. Stress to this area is typically caused by acute or repetitive trauma. The symptoms of Olecranon bursitis include pain, tenderness, local swelling, decreased movement and warmth of skin over the elbow.
22 A client complains of feeling cranky, being nervous, having frequent headaches, with a tingly feeling in her skin. She also has trouble sleeping. Of the following, which condition may be causing these symptoms?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hypoglycemia is a condition where a person's blood sugar level goes below normal levels. It is usually related to diabetes, but can be caused by other conditions. Treatment of the condition includes the eating of foods with a high sugar content or the taking of medications, to quickly return the blood sugar level to a normal range. Hyperglycemia is high blood sugar often associated with diabetes. Its main symptoms are being thirsty and frequent need to urinate.
23 Which of the following gender and age groups are most susceptible to osteoporosis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While both men and women can be at risk for osteoporosis, women are at a much higher risk after menopause when estrogen and progesterone levels drop, reducing the amount of periosteum production on bones.

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24 A client presents with a small bulge at the bottom of his rib cage above his abdomen. The client tells you he has a hernia. What type of hernia does he have?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A hiatal hernia occurs when the stomach bulges through the muscles separating the abdomen from the diaphragm due to weakened abdominal muscles. A small hiatal hernia usually does not cause problems but a large one can cause food and reflux to back up in the esophagus. The other types of hernias occur in other locations torso - umbilical (navel), inguinal (groin) and incisional (lower in the abdomen area).
25 Which of the following is NOT an effective, safe massage treatment for someone with COPD?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
MRT is effective for those muscles and relaxing neck tension (which may indirectly help) but it is not necessarily a specific treatment for COPD. Tapotement of the posterior rib cage is good for helping break up and release some of the potential mucus build up. Working with the breathing muscles mentioned in answer option D will help loosen the muscles involved with breathing. During the advanced stages of COPD, lymphatic massage may help to move stagnant lymph and ease breathing.
26 A new client's intake form states they have been diagnosed with Cataplexy. What does this mean?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cataplexy is an autoimmune disorder that results in temporary episodes of muscle weakness typically triggered by emotional reactions. Cataplexy is not related to pressure behind the eyes, weakness of the joints or with trouble breathing.

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Physiological Effects of Massage 

27 A client informs the massage therapist that she has been feeling "stressed" lately. The therapist suggests the use of Swedish massage. What hormone is typically reduced during Swedish massage?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
During a massage the parasympathetic nervous system is activated suppressing the production of cortisol. During times of stress the sympathetic nervous system is active releasing the hormones adrenaline and cortisol preparing one to either fight or run - "Fight or Flight". Cortisol prepares the body by flooding it with glucose, supplying an immediate energy source to large muscles. It narrows arteries increasing blood pressure. It also inhibits insulin production to prevent glucose from being stored, favoring its immediate use. This leads to blood sugar imbalances and diabetes, weight gain and obesity, immune system suppression and gastrointestinal problems.
28 During the repair phase of healing, stretching is a preferred technique. Why?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The inflammatory phase has ended when the repair phase starts. In the repair phase, granular substance, collagen, and fibrinogen fill in the lesion and the formation of the scar begins, but it's too fragile for any vigorous techniques. So mild stretching and range of motion combined with MICE (movement, ice, compression, elevation) are indicated to help organize the fibers linearly. It's during the remodeling phase when more vigorous techniques are applied and the focus is to break down the scar tissue a little and create functional inflammation to strengthen the scar.
29 Massage reduces blood pressure by simulating which of the following:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Massage reduces blood pressure by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system and getting a relaxation response. This innervates the vagus nerve and slows heart rate down while causing vasodilation reducing blood pressure over all.

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30 What is the physiology behind the feeling of wellbeing brought on by massage attributed to?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The feelings of wellbeing are believed to result from the release of endorphins stimulated by the safe and caring touch of massage. While the other three answer options ring true, they are not the best answer for this question.
31 Deep friction massage is indicated in which stage of healing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Deep friction massage during the remodeling stage of healing helps form strong mobile scar tissue and break apart any inter fiber adhesions to help regain full painless ROM. Massage is generally locally contraindicated during the inflammation phase. During the repair or regeneration stage, it is important to work on range of motion which can help with oxygenation and circulation. Deep friction massage may create more or exacerbated injury as new fibers are still being created.

Client Assessment 

32 During your intake interview, your client tells you that she has had lower back pain and she points to her lower left back area. In what section of the S.O.A.P. notes would this go?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
S stands for "subjective", what your client tells you, like their chief complaint. Observations by the therapist would be placed in the Objective section. Any assessment techniques used by therapist and the results would be put in the Assessment section. Plan is what the therapist will do to treat the client, including the initial treatment and follow-up treatment.

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33 While performing a postural analysis on a client you note that she is slumped forward with the palms of her hands facing the sides of her legs. This would indicate:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pectoralis major and Latissimus dorsi would not only slump the shoulders forward (rounded shoulders) but would also internally rotate the arm to the point that the palms are facing the front of the thigh. Your client's palms are facing the sides of the leg like they should, so the slump forward would indicate it is a spinal curve issue.
34 While performing a deep tissue massage on a client, you notice the client's breathing change, almost like they are holding their breath. What is this an indication of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When a client is holding their breath they are not allowing their body to accept the treatment of deep pressure, and their body is actually resisting the work.
35 A 30 year old client states that he has pes planus. How might this affect the client's body and movements?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pes planus is the condition of having flatfoot, where the longitudinal arch is lower than in normal development. Having flat feet means there may be a collapse of the arch which will at some point likely cause an unstable gate and possible chronic back pain. The likelihood of it having positive effects is low. Pes planus creating a tendency toward plantar flexion or tiptoes is counterintuitive. Later in life, it may bring some more serious challenges, like making it difficult to walk or sit up in a serious stretch.

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36 Moving through initial client assessments, what is the best way for an LMT to get an accurate idea of a client's gait?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The best way to assess a client's gait is to observe them without them knowing, like on the way to the treatment room. Answer options A, B and D would likely to create a bit of nervousness and a forced or unnatural footing and/or balance.

Ethics, Boundaries, Laws & Regulations 

37 A client's demeanor reminds a massage therapist of her beloved uncle. This is an example of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When a therapist projects feelings and/or memory from their past onto their client, this is a situation of countertransference.
38 Therapists should maintain clear standards of practice for client draping to avoid crossing the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Having clear and consistent draping policies for all bodywork sessions in accordance with the standards of practice is necessary to avoid crossing the physical (or sexual) boundaries of the client as well as maintaining privacy and maintaining the trust within the therapist/client relationship.

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39 If a massage therapist invokes a therapist's "right of refusal" to give massage in a case where massage is contraindicated, which specific principle of massage therapy is upheld?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The principles of beneficence and non-maleficence are obligations of the massage therapist to maximize the possible benefits of massage (beneficence) and to avoid or minimize possible harms to the client (non-maleficence). Both principles are based on what's in the client's best interest. Non-maleficence requires a massage therapist to refrain from something that goes against the client's interest.
40 A massage therapist has a friend who is a client. The massage therapist feels bad charging the client. From what is this feeling arising from?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A dual relationship arises when a client is a friend, family member or business associate. These relationships make it difficult to keep social boundaries. A problem with such relationships is that the massage therapist and client can start having feelings about the situation which are beyond professional.
41 A massage therapist is advising a client to take a certain medication. What boundary or rule is being broken?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The massage therapist's scope of practice is being broken. Scope of Practice includes everything that the therapist is trained to do under the specific certificate/license with which they are currently working. Physical boundaries related to physical environment of the client, like draping or touching. A dual relationship describes a scenario where the massage therapist and client may also be family, friends or colleagues, which in turn may mar or confuse the professional boundaries. Emotional boundaries related to transference, countertransference and the power differential.

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42 To obtain informed consent all of the following are necessary, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Processing is not a part of informed consent. Informed consent requires the disclosure or the presentation of all relevant information needed to make informed consent, an understanding in the client of the information and consent where the client (usually signs a waiver) agrees and/or gives permission to the treatment protocol.

Guidelines for Professional Practice 

43 The two main stances for massage therapists to use for technique delivery are:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The two main stances to deliver a massage are the straddle and archer stances. The straddle stance is with feet hip width apart, knees slightly bent, toes straight ahead and weight evenly distributed on both feet. The archer stance is with toes pointing in same direction, one foot in front asymmetrically with the most weight on the back foot. These two stances allow the most versatility in providing even, full and smooth technique delivery with the least amount of stress to the therapist and the most efficient treatment for the client.
44 A massage therapist should avoid wearing wrinkled clothing, too much makeup and sexy attire as a matter of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is important to have a good first impression with clients to instill trust and to lay the ground work for a long-term relationship. Choosing a work uniform which is comfortable to work in, allows freedom of movement, and gives the impression that your office is professional and dedicated to the health and well-being of the client is most important.

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45 Which tax form would an independent contractor of a wellness center receive at the end of the calendar year?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As an independent contractor, the therapist would receive a 1099 statement from the wellness center.
46 All of the following are necessary to the legal practice of massage therapy, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A massage therapist does not have to form a corporation or even start a business to practice as a massage therapist. A massage therapist can work as an employee for a massage therapy business. However, a massage therapist must follow HIPAA's confidentiality rules and regulations, have liability insurance for his or her practice and carry a state license for massage therapy and/or bodywork.
47 A client may pay for massage therapy services with:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As long as the massage treatment qualifies for coverage, massage therapy can be paid for by a client's health insurance, auto insurance or with worker's comp coverage. The massage therapy may have to be for medically necessary treatment that is prescribed by a physician or primary healthcare provider.

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48 If a client has autonomy in a healthcare relationship, it means he or she has:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A person acts with autonomy if one acts with intention and understanding, making one's own choices, free from any controlling interference from others that prevents meaningful choice.

Massage History & Culture 

49 Who standardized massage terminology and is given credit for bringing massage to the scientific community?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mezger was from Holland. After he presented massage to fellow physicians in Holland, the physicians and other followers began to use the French terms effleurage, petrissage and tapotement. It is not clear why French terms were adopted for the techniques.
50 Which modality was created originally for pediatric clients as an option for acupuncture?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tuina uses the theory of acupuncture where the practitioner uses finger pressure to stimulate the acupuncture points. Originally, it was used to treat pediatric medical conditions with poke-pinch and push-grasp techniques to stimulate a child's natural healing processes.

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Related Links

How should I study for the MBLEx?

Practice tests and flash cards are an effective way to study for the MBLEx.  They help you learn the subject matter and practice your test taking skills.  The MBLEx is taken on a computer, so practicing with online practice tests can boost your chance of success. 

What is on the MBLEx?

Massage therapists need to obtian a license to practice in most states. In many states, a passing score on the MBLEx is one of several requirements for licensure.  The MBLEx consists of 100 multiple-choice questions with a 1 hour and 50 minute (110 minutes) time limit.  

Actual MBLEx Content Outline (source: The FSMTB Handbook):
  • Anatomy & Physiology 
  • Kinesiology
  • Pathology, Contraindications, Areas of Caution, Special Populations
  • Benefits & Effects of Soft Tissue Manipulation
  • Client Assessment, Reassessment & Treatment Planning
  • Ethics, Boundaries, Regulations, Laws
  • Guidelines for Professional Practice
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