2025 Edition

Practice Test for the DANB Dental Assistant Exam

 
 

General Chairside Assistance

1. A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?
2. Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?
3. Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?
4. A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?
5. When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:
6. Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?
7. Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?
8. What is the structure that connects cementum to the alveolar bone?
9. A gold crown is marked by:
10. A dental assistant is preparing to chart a new patient's treatment plan for the doctor. Treatment provided in a previous dental office should be charted in what color?
11. Two red vertical lines drawn between the upper central incisors on a patient chart would indicate:
12. The recommended technique for determining a patient's pulse or respiration rate is to:
13. In order to determine how much to inflate a blood pressure cuff for an accurate reading, a dental assistant measures the patient's BPM brachial pulse rate and adds ______ to determine the inflation level in mm Hg.
14. An average adult respiration rate is _______________ breaths per minute
15. What is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult?
16. Standard practice provides, and some state laws require, that a signed privacy policy be kept in a patient's file for a minimum of _______ year(s).
17. Which of the following is not a part of a dental examination?
18. What classification of decay is located on the gingival third on the facial or lingual surfaces of teeth?
19. While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at?
20. The area also known as the neck of the tooth is more appropriately called the:
21. What type of tissue covers alveolar bone, attaching to the teeth at the margin of the gumlines?
22. What is the tissue that divides the nasal cavity into 2 parts?
23. Which nerve is the primary nerve for the mouth?
24. The pituitary gland is part of what body system?
25. What position places the chair back until the patient is almost lying down?
26. What is the best method of identifying working positions by a dental auxiliary?
27. When transferring an instrument to the dentist, the dental assistant should:
28. When retrieving an instrument from a right-handed operator, the assistant uses the ______________ finger(s) of their left hand.
29. Most of the time, a dental assistant will be working in what "time zone" during a treatment procedure?
30. Which chair has a foot bar for support?
31. The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly _______ to the tooth being prepared.
32. What isolation method is appropriate for one or several teeth?
33. An adult male arrives for a scheduled root canal and crown appointment. The dental assistant prepares the instrument tray and equipment when he is seated. What size hole punch is needed for premolar and canines on a dental dam?
34. When removing a dry cotton roll from the mouth:
35. Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2?
36. What part of the gas machine houses the nitrous oxide and oxygen to combine them together for the patient to breathe?
37. Nitrous oxide has been used on a patient. For how many minutes afterward should the patient remain on 100% Oxygen?.
38. Which of the following is an approved method by the Center for Disease Control for re-capping a used needle?
39. A long needle, 1 5/8" in length, is used for what type of injections?
40. What type of injection involves the tissues near the apex of a tooth?
41. Which of the following is NOT a health concern when it comes to selecting the appropriate form of local anesthetic?
42. What is added to an anesthetic agent to lengthen the effect by decreasing blood flow?
43. How long should topical anesthetic be applied to the mucosa prior to an injection?
44. What may be added to burs in order to shorten preparation time by improving cutting ability?
45. Which of the following burs would be appropriate for a crown-prep setup tray?
46. Low speed handpieces are used for
47. What type of handpiece operates at speeds of up to 450,000 rpm?
48. A 16-year-old female has an appointment for an MOD amalgam on #14. What instrument is used to carve amalgam on the occlusal surface of a tooth?
49. Which of the following is Not a step in sealant placement?
50. Which of the following would a bristled brush style prophy angle NOT be appropriate to use on?
51. What type of stain is on the surface of enamel and may be removed through hand scaling or rubber cup polishing?
52. A dental assistant who is approved to perform expanded functions prepares to perform coronal polishing on a patient after the hygienist has done the scaling. What is done to ensure the prevention of removing small amounts of enamel during coronal polishing?
53. A gingival retraction cord:
54. Which of the following can help prevent hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure?
55. Which of the following would contraindicate a partial denture?
56. Which of the following is the metal extension on a partial denture, which rests on the alveolar ridge and holds the artificial teeth?
57. When taking a shade for a dental appliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
58. What is the amalgam material that helps hold a fixed restoration in place?
59. What type of restoration is made of a pontic with wing like frame extensions that fit on adjacent teeth?
60. What term refers to the tooth that support a bridge?
61. Which of the following is not an example of a cast restoration?
62. Which of the following is the most widely used periodontal dressing?
63. Which of the following is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue?
64. What instruments converts high frequency sound waves into rapid vibrations for clinical use?
65. Which of the following is not for use when removing calculus deposits below the gumline?
66. A patient arrives for a scaling and root planing procedure on his upper right and lower right quadrants. Which of the following people in the dental office may measure periodontal pockets?
67. A patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease is seen for their periodontal maintenance appointment. Upon examination, the patient exhibits mobility in localized areas. Moderate mobility would be recorded as a ____.
68. Periodontal probing depths of 5-7mm are indicative of:
69. The inflammation of gingival tissue is:
70. To what degree can a mouth be affected with periodontal disease and the disease be considered localized?
71. A 14 year old male presents with large MO decay on #19. There is enough decay evident on the bitewing film to show that the patient will be in need of a crown. What is done in an attempt to save a pulp in cases where a root canal may not be necessary?
72. What is the reason for performing debridement during a root canal procedure?
73. The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is:
74. What solution is used as a sealer in deciduous teeth that undergo a pulpotomy?
75. What instrument has small barbs along the shaft and is used to remove pulp tissue?
76. Which of the following is not an appropriate irrigation solution in endodontic procedures?
77. A patient comes into the office for an endodontic procedure. What is the minimum number of radiographs needed?
78. Which of the following is not a root canal sealer that is used to seal unfilled voids?
79. What is used to absorb the irrigating solution during an endodontic procedure?
80. During a surgical scrub, hands and forearms should be scrubbed with a surgical scrub brush for how long?
81. During the extraction of an impacted tooth, what instrument is used to retract tissue away from the bone?
82. Following an surgical scrub, hands should be kept:
83. What flat working instrument used for extractions has large cutting grooves?
84. Which of the following is not a surgical procedure commonly performed in general dental practices?
85. Forceps are held using the:
86. A dry socket occurs when:
87. Which of the following materials is not an absorbable suture material?
88. What describes the reshaping of bone between adjacent teeth that have been extracted?
89. Surgical instruments are all considered to be:
90. A tooth that has come out completely due to trauma or injury is said to be:
91. Which of the following is not a type of stainless steel crown?
92. When the coronal portion of a dental pulp is removed from a primary tooth, the procedure is called:
93. Preventive orthodontics provided by a pediatric dentist include which of the following?
94. Which of the following is unique to pediatric dental offices?
95. Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until:
96. The emphasis of pediatric dentistry is on all of the following EXCEPT:
97. A 5 year old male arrives for an MO composite on #K. What matrix band is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for use on primary molars?
98. What type of crown is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for badly decayed teeth?
99. Which of the following are the most frequently injured primary teeth?
100. What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
101. What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
102. What are thin wires used around brackets that hold arch wires in place?
103. What helps to bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches?
104. A dentist needs to guide an arch wire into place. What orthodontic instrument should be used?
105. Which of the following directions can orthodontic treatment move a tooth?
106. Which of the following is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings?
107. Which of the following is not a common type of cavity liner?
108. A 35 year old female is having an incisal chip on #25 repaired. What is applied to the surface of a tooth to prepare for the use of bonding material?
109. What type of cement is used for permanently cementing a cast to a tooth?
110. Bonding is greatly improved when etch is used on the surface of dentin to remove:
111. What cement material is used for most temporary restorations?
112. Which cement releases fluoride at a slow rate, inhibiting decay?
113. Which of the following is the only material listed that is appropriate to mix on a paper mixing pad?
114. A ______ and ______ are needed when creating a proper contour of a new restoration.
115. When preparing a matrix band, which edge has a shorter circumference?
116. Which of the following is NOT true in regards to home whitening treatments?
117. Wedges are not needed for Class ____ matrix systems.
118. What thin, tooth-colored restorative material is bonded directly to the tooth in order to improve the appearance?
119. Which of the following is used for anterior composite fillings?
120. What is used along with bonding material when a tooth is badly broken down?
121. Which of the following would NOT be needed for a varnish application set-up?
122. Etching requires approximately how long in order to thoroughly etch the tooth structure?
123. Which of the following is not a type of impression?
124. What type of material is an irreversible hydrocolloid that is the material of choice for taking a preliminary impression?
125. What material is used to create diagnostic casts when strength and accuracy of the model are not critical?
126. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products?
127. What is predominately used to show the occlusion relationship between arches?
128. A mandibular alginate impression usually requires how many scoops of alginate powder?
129. When taking a final impression of a tooth, the _________ form of viscosity is chosen for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth.
130. When taking a final impression, which of the following is not necessary for the set-up tray?
131. Mineralized bacteria on the tooth surface is called:
132. De-minerlization of the tooth is caused by the loss of:
133. What is made up of glycoproteins in saliva and forms on the surfaces of teeth within minutes?
134. When gingival infection extends to the alveolar bone, it is called:
135. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing periodontitis?
136. Soft toothbrush bristles are preferred for brushing. What is the reason?
137. What educational aid temporarily colors plaque for more effective removal?
138. What is the most commonly recommended toothbrushing method that helps target plaque below the gumline?
139. Which type of floss is most effective in plaque removal?
140. When brushing, a toothbrush should be placed at what angulation toward the gumlines?
141. __________ pressure should be used when brushing.
142. Fluoride may sometimes be found in:
143. Which of the following would not contain a topical fluoride?
144. When a tooth decalcifies and then remineralization occurs, which of the following is NOT accurate?
145. Young children exposed to long-term overuse of fluoride may develop what on developing permanent teeth?
146. Optimum concentrations of fluoride in municipal water systems should be in what range?
147. Which of the following are NOT at a high-risk to develop caries?
148. What is used by the body as the chief source of energy?
149. What vitamin assists the body's ability to absorb calcium?
150. Which of the following is not a vital sign?
151. What common medical emergency occurs when blood flow to the brain slows and causes the patient to lose consciousness?
152. Postural hypotension may occur when:
153. When does hyperventilation occur?
154. What is a neurologic disorder that causes seizures, and is normally controlled with medication?
155. Which of the following is NOT correct?
156. What heart condition is painful but does not usually cause death?
157. What is anaphylaxis?
158. A localized allergic response may include all of the following except:
159. Which of the following supplies contain an allergen that might cause an allergic reaction in some patients?
160. Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a medical emergency?
161. Who is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office?
162. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a medical emergency?
163. A patient begins to experience hives and difficulty breathing. Which of the following emergency drugs would be appropriate for use in an allergic reaction?
164. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate item to keep in an emergency drug kit for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
165. During a bonding procedure for teeth #8 and 9, a patient begins experiencing trouble breathing. What position should the patient be put in?
166. What color are oxygen tanks in the dental office?
167. Which of the following is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training?
168. Which of the following is NOT an example of a staff role during a medical emergency?
169. A patient faints in the dental chair. They should be placed:
170. A patient begins to experience a seizure while in the dental chair. Which of the following is NOT appropriate?
171. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain?
172. What color are nitrous oxide tanks?
173. _______ refers to what you should do in a given situation.
174. _______ refers to what you must do in a given situation.
175. What type of supervision is used when the dentist is physically present in a dental office and delegates a procedure to the assistant to be completed?
176. Which of the following is not a concept of risk management to prevent malpractice suits?
177. Implied consent differs from written consent. Written consent _______.
178. Which of the following is NOT included in a patient's chart?
179. A dental assistant marks the wrong amount of Lidocaine used in a patient's chart. Which of the following is an appropriate method of correcting a patient's record?
180. Who owns a patient's records and radiographs?
181. Approximately 65% of child abuse cases involve:
182. A patient that has not been seen in the office for at least 5 years is:
183. When scheduling appointments inside of a practice management program, most time units are made up of:
184. What act specifies the regulations that ensure privacy related to a patient's healthcare information?
185. HIPAA is an acronym for:
186. Failing to maintain a recall system will result in:
187. Who in the dental office is ultimately responsible for reporting child abuse cases?
188. What organization is responsible for regulating dentistry and those that practice it within each state?

Infection Control

189. Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?
190. Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against?
191. Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies?
192. A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this?
193. A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. What condition could have caused this infection?
194. What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases?
195. Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore?
196. Which of the following does not determine how pathogenic an organism is?
197. A patient is experiencing increased stress due to a recent illness that has impacted her normal routine. What type of infection could have entered the body and then lie dormant until triggered by conditions such as stress?
198. Which of the following is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission?
199. A patient has a bloodborne disease. Which of the following is not a disease that the dental professional is concerned about contracting through contact with blood?
200. Which hepatitis virus is not transmitted by bloodborne bacteria?
201. A dentist is treating a patient with a porcelain crown on #4. Which of the following dental equipment does not create an aerosol exposure to the dentist during use?
202. Which of the following modes of disease transmission is also known as cross-contamination?
203. Which of the following conditions is the least threatening to dental personnel when it concerns the risk of transmission?
204. A patient states that they have contracted Herpes, and asks if there are signs of the virus in the mouth. After questioning the patient it is determined that the virus strain was contracted through sexual activity. Which herpes virus is sexually transmitted?
205. The OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard guides employees to protect themselves from all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
206. Dental assistants are to treat each patient as if they were infected with a bloodborne illness. This precautionary method is called
207. CDC standard precautions include care taken around all of the following EXCEPT:
208. Which of the following is not a category of occupational exposure?
209. A dental assistant receives a needlestick when attempting to re-cap a used needle during a dental procedure. Needlesticks or cuts in the skin are what type of occupational exposure?
210. An assistant is re-capping a used needle after a treatment procedure. What is the appropriate method for the assistant to use when re-capping?
211. Employee medical records, including proof of Hep B vaccination, should be kept by the employer for how long?
212. An assistant has seated a patient, assisted with the procedure, and just excused the patient following the treatment. When should handwashing occur?
213. All of the following help to minimize cross-contamination EXCEPT:
214. When conducting an inventory of PPE equipment, a dentist should make sure all of the following items are available to staff EXCEPT:
215. Higher levels of PPE should be used for which of the following?
216. PPE requirements state that:
217. Bloodeborne pathogen standards state that protective clothing:
218. A hygienist is changing her surgical mask after seeing a patient for a deep cleaning. When should a surgical mask be changed?
219. When selecting PPE for an assisting procedure, which of the following is NOT an option for protective eyewear?
220. What can reduce mask filtration?
221. What kind of gloves are sterile?
222. In which of the following situations should utility gloves be worn?
223. A patient presents himself with a latex allergy. Which of the following type of gloves would be appropriate for the assistant to use?
224. Items like gloves, masks, eyewear and uniforms are considered:
225. An assistant discards of a certain piece of waste in its own container. What type of waste is this?
226. A dentist chooses sterile gloves for a procedure. Which of the following procedures is the dentist most likely about to perform?
227. Which agency's role is to issue standards that protect the health of employees?
228. What law is the most important when it comes to protecting employees against exposure to disease in the dental office?
229. A recall patient has cold sores on his lip that have begun to scab over. Cold sores are a type of what kind of infection?
230. Splatter from the ultrasonic scaler makes contact with the hygienist's eye because she was using inappropriate PPE. What type of exposure is this?
231. A health care professional visits their doctor for vaccination due to occupational exposure risks. What type of immunity is achieved when someone is vaccinated and their body creates the antibodies against a disease?
232. An assistant is cleaning up an operatory following a crown procedure. There are used mixing pads on the tray. What type of waste is this?
233. The dentist extracts a patient's 2nd bicuspids for their orthodontic treatment. Extracted teeth are a type of what kind of waste?
234. The office staff are unloading the most recent supply of delivery boxes. As packages are opened, the assistant gathers specific sheets to include in an office binder. What is the information sheet called that contains health and safety information about chemicals used in the dental office?
235. A patient breaks out into a rash after coming into contact with the dentist's latex glove. What is this reaction called?
236. An assistant is dressing in the morning to prepare for work. Which of the following is appropriate to wear in the dental office?
237. An assistant is helping a dentist perform an extraction. The assistant needs to touch something not associated with the treatment. What gloves should be worn?
238. An assistant is preparing a treatment room for the next procedure. During this preparation, she sets out PPE for herself and the doctor. Does the same PPE need to be worn for all patient procedures?
239. One of the staff members in the office refuses to receive the Hepatitis B vaccine. This employee must:
240. A dentist hires a new assistant to replace the one that just moved to another state. What must he provide free of charge to his employees?
241. Which of the following is capable of causing disease?
242. A patient has a poor immune system and becomes infected with a disease-causing pathogen. This patient may develop a(n):
243. An assistant is cleaning up the operatory following a crown seat procedure without wearing gloves. If transmission of a pathogen occurs, what type of transmission would it be?
244. Biohazardous waste must be discarded by:
245. Dental employees are at a biggest risk to pathogen exposure by what type of transmission?
246. Which of the following can reduce a patient's ability to transmit disease during a dental procedure?
247. A patient contracts a disease but then recovers. Their body has formed what type of immunity?
248. In order to follow OSHA requirements appropriately, a dental assistant must have routine training in all of the following EXCEPT:
249. When cleaning off a treatment tray, the dental assistant must dispose of waste appropriately. Which of the following is NOT an example of biohazardous waste?
250. What is the term that is used to describe how strong a disease-causing organism is?
251. An infectious disease causes:
252. Which of the following is NOT important in regards to an ideal sterilization area?
253. When removing used equipment and instruments from a treatment tray, what type of gloves should the dental assistant select to wear?
254. Which of the following equipment is NOT necessary for a dental assistant to wear when transporting used instruments from the treatment area to the sterilization area?
255. The schedule is backed up and the dental assistant is not able to clean the used instruments immediately. The instruments should be:
256. When unloading the autoclave, the assistant is not sure whether or not it has been run. What is used on an instrument package to show if the enclosed instruments have been sterilized or not?
257. When loading or unloading the sterilizer, which of the following is NOT something that needs to be considered?
258. Quality assurance in regards to sterilization includes which of the following:
259. An assistant is putting on PPE to perform sterilization procedures. When should a mask be used as part of this routine?
260. A staff member is assembling treatment trays for the day. What gloves are appropriate for this purpose?
261. An assistant keeps protective eyewear in their lab coat pocket throughout the workday. At what times should they be worn?
262. What is the area where soiled instruments are held?
263. Which of the following is NOT an example of precleaning:
264. When selecting precleaning methods for a new office sterilization area, which of the following methods is the least desirable for cleaning instruments?
265. What method of precleaning instruments uses cavitation, or the bursting of bubbles, to remove debris from soiled instruments?
266. An assistant must package all instruments prior to sterilization in order to reduce the risk of contamination when they are removed. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in regards to instrument packaging?
267. One of the team members is creating a check-off list for office duties that include preparation of the sterilization area on a routine basis. At least how often should the ultrasonic cleaner be changed out?
268. Which of the following destroys all microbial forms:
269. What type of machine uses steam under pressure to sterilize instruments?
270. Which of the following sterilization methods can sterilize water-based liquids?
271. Which of the following methods of sterilization can produce corrosion to instruments?
272. Sterilization in a chemical liquid sterilization solution requires what length of contact time?
273. Biologic monitoring confirms that ______ have been killed:
274. An assistant places a monitoring device on the outside of an instrument package. This device changes color once a certain temperature has been reached. What is this device called?
275. An assistant ensures that monitoring of the sterilization machines is done to meet CDC and ADA recommendations. How often should this monitoring be performed?
276. A new staff member places sterilization packs snuggly into the autoclave. If packages in the sterilizer are too close together, the primary concern is that it may:
277. The dentist is purchasing a new piece of equipment for quick sterilization in her busy office. What is the quickest method of instrument sterilization?
278. OSHA recommends what methods to deal with surface contamination in the treatment room?
279. An assistant is setting up an operatory for the next appointment. Which of the following is an example of a surface barrier that might be used?
280. An assistant is cleaning and disinfecting a treatment room. What PPE does the assistant need to wear?
281. All contaminated surfaces must be ___________ before they can be ____________.
282. What is the method that kills disease-causing organisms that remain on surfaces after they are precleaned?
283. Spores are killed in the process called:
284. What agency regulates disinfectants and chemical sterilants?
285. What are EPA approved cleaners that serve as a mid-level hospital disinfected that kills the Tuberculosis virus?
286. What road-spectrum mid-level hospital disinfectant may be appropriate for use on disinfecting dental impressions?
287. An assistant is cleaning up an operatory after an extraction that has resulted in large amounts of blood droplet splatter. Which of the following surface disinfectants are not effective against areas contaminated with blood or saliva?
288. Gletaraldehyde is a _____-level disinfectant
289. When deciding what instruments need to be sterilized vs. disinfected, the staff member knows that the instruments that penetrate body tissues must be sterilized. What is this type of instrument called?
290. During tray clean up, certain instruments have only touched mucous membranes and have a lower risk of disease transmission. What type of instruments are these?
291. How should semicritical instruments be sterilized?
292. A procedure has involved the use of the x-ray machine, an oral mirror, tongue depressor and dental dam. An assistant is preparing to clean up the work area. Which of the following would be a noncritical dental instrument?:
293. An assistant desires to help reduce the spread of disease causing organisms during the treatment of the next patient. Which of the following can help achieve this goal?
294. When reducing contamination of water lines, a dental assistant may choose to use all of the following methods EXCEPT:
295. An assistant is using disinfectant on radiographs and radiography equipment. What type of disinfectant is appropriate?
296. When setting up the operatory for a bridge prep, surface barriers such as bags, taps or covers are not necessary for use on:
297. Which of the following is the most difficult prosthodontic item to disinfect without causing damage to it?
298. An employee has been exposed to a hazardous chemical in the office. What hazard communication program maintains the documentation of this event?
299. The office manager purchases some household bleach that was on sale at the store to be used while cleaning the office. It will not be used for anything other than cleaning the restroom. Which of the following should be done?
300. A dental office must maintain the information sheets provided by chemical manufacturers that describe the properties of their product. What are these sheets called?
301. When treating a patient, a dental assistant acquires a needlestick from the used syringe on the countertop. What is the first thing she should do?
302. An assistant that acquires a needlestick during a treatment procedure immediately stops operations and excuses themselves from the treatment room. What is the next appropriate first-aid step?
303. Legionnaire disease may be spread by legionella bacteria in a dental water line, and can cause what type of infection?
304. Chronic chemical toxicity can cause:
305. Emergency kits in the dental office should be inspected how often?
306. What organization identifies classifications of dental touch surfaces like switches, controls and handles?
307. A dentist removes amalgam from a patient's tooth during a procedure. How should this amalgam be disposed of?
308. The office manager is putting together documentation for the Hazard Communication Standard. All of the following documents should be included EXCEPT:
309. An assistant receives a needlestick after it is used on an HIV+ patient. The assistant undergoes necessary first-aid and follow up protocols regarding contaminated needlesticks. A follow up testing is recommended again how long after the initial exposure?
310. Biohazardous waste containers must be:
311. An assistant transfers a chemical from its properly labeled container into a smaller container for a single patient procedure. Which of the following is NOT true?
312. What is the layer of microbes inside the walls of dental unit water lines called?
313. A dental assistant prepares to flush the dental water lines. How often is this to be performed?
314. Following a full mouth debridement, the hygienist needs to clean out the trap from the vacuum line. Before this is done what should happen?
315. What commonly used device can cause cross-contamination if the patient's lips seal around it?
316. An assistant removes packages from the sterilizer that are still wet. What can happen
317. The office manager trains newly hired employees regarding hazardous communication standards. When should this training take place?
318. What agency's guidelines for infection control establish the standard of care for dental practitioners?
319. What is the most important infection control law in dentistry?
320. Standard precautions" is the newer, expanded concept term used by the CDC for what previous terminology?
321. At the end of the day, back office staff change out of their soiled PPE clothing before leaving the workplace. Laundering this clothing is the responsibility of:
322. The "Employee Right-to-Know Law" refers to what?
323. Which of the following is a classification of waste?
324. Which of the following is NOT information found on an MSDS sheet?
325. An assistant with expanded function responsibilities performs a coronal polish and then removes her PPE. Which PPE should be removed first upon the completion of routine treatment of a patient?
326. At the end of a surgical extraction, the assistant removes his PPE. Which of the following PPE equipment should be removed last?
327. What agency regulates categories of waste and how they are to be disposed of?
328. The EPA regulates which of the following items used in dentistry?
329. The high-volume evacuation can be used to reduce the spread of microorganisms by:
330. Biofilm can be completely eliminated from dental unit water lines by:
331. An assistant sets up an operatory for the next treatment procedure. After the room is cleaned and disinfected, surface barriers are placed where appropriate. These barriers should be put on by using:
332. Extracted teeth are considered what type of waste?
333. The dental assistant is monitoring a patient who is receiving nitrous oxide. Which of the following is NOT something that should be done?
334. A microorganism that has a high capability to produce a disease within a host is called:
335. When there is an absence of disease causing organisms, it is described as being:
336. The receptionist brings a file back to the dentist to alert them that a new patient has a communicable disease. Which of the following diseases would cause a patient to not be treated in a dental office?
337. Which of the following is considered a semicritical dental instrument?
338. When caring for a dental handpiece, which of the following would be the best method for disinfection?
339. When using a liquid soak sterilization system, how much immersion time is required to achieve disinfection?
340. Holding solution should be used prior to ultrasonic soaks when:
341. Which of the following equipment cleans instruments by removing debris?
342. Surgical instruments such as scalpels or extraction forceps would be classified as what type of instrument?
343. Which of the following is a example of a non-critical dental instrument/equipment?
344. Sterilization areas should have the following work flow:

Dental Radiography

345. What type of film allows the entire dentition to be viewed on a single film?
346. Which of the following is not a main component of a panoramic x-ray unit?
347. What type of device does digital radiography use to record images taken of the patient's teeth?
348. Which of the following inflicts the most radiation on a patient?
349. What step helps prevent a large radiolucent area near the palate as seen on panoramic x-rays?
350. Why does digital radiography require less radiation than traditional x-rays?
351. Digital x-ray sensors:
352. What technique is the preferred exposure method for digital sensors?
353. Which of the following is not an advantage in regards to digital x-ray sensors?
354. Which of the following is NOT part of a film packet?
355. What makes it possible to produce duplicate sets of radiographs without additional radiation or the need to use a duplicating machine?
356. What size film is usually used for occlusal radiographs?
357. What size film is appropriate for use as a PA on an upper incisor?
358. What use is a size 2 film most appropriate for?
359. Which of the following is one of the basic techniques for obtaining PA x-rays?
360. What technique places film in line with the long axis of the teeth to be radiographed?
361. When using the paralleling technique, in what direction is the x-ray beam aimed?
362. Which of the following requires the use of a film-holding instrument?
363. When placing a film in a PID, which of the following is correct?
364. What is the position on the patient's face where the central x-ray beam is aimed?
365. What angulation must be perpendicular to the film and long axis of the teeth using the paralleling technique?
366. Failing to have the x-ray beam in a perpendicular position in a paralleling technique will result in:
367. What will cause overlapping of proximal contacts?
368. In bisecting the angle, which of the following is NOT true?
369. What occurs when the x-ray beam is not centered with the x-ray film?
370. FMX series consist of:
371. Premolar BWX should include:
372. Molar BWX film should be placed:
373. What improper placement can cause misdiagnosis on BWX x-rays?
374. Where is the film placed when occlusal films are taken?
375. Which of the following is NOT a use for occlusal radiographs?
376. The white side of intraoral film should always face:
377. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
378. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
379. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
380. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
381. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
382. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
383. Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
384. After processing a film, it comes out completely clear. What is the probable cause?
385. When the vertical angulation of the x-ray beam is too low, it will cause:
386. Blurred images on a film may be caused by:
387. A shorter object to film distance:
388. A longer PID results in:
389. Contrast of the x-ray is controlled by:
390. Density, or the overall darkness of an x-ray, is controlled by what setting?
391. Which of the following is not appropriate after a lead apron has been used?
392. What is the recommended size of x-ray beams, which are targeted toward the patient's face for dental radiographs?
393. What type of position indication device produces scatter radiation?
394. Adjustment of what setting can change the density on a dental radiograph?
395. A wet reading can be done when the x-ray film is:
396. What type of x-ray would be most appropriate to view the root apex of tooth #28?
397. What type of x-ray would be most appropriate when screening for interproximal recurrent decay?
398. The curve of Spee:
399. When using duplicate film for a patient x-ray, which of the following must be done?
400. How often should bitewing radiographs be prescribed by the doctor?
401. Which of the following would appear radiolucent on a film?
402. If a film is not exposed long enough, when it is processed it will appear:
403. A thyroid collar:
404. What type of radiograph is useful by orthodontists in regards to the profile of a patient's face?
405. Filtration of an x-ray beam with an aluminum disk:
406. What length do PIDs typically come in?
407. What control adjusts the film shades of grey, black and white in an x-ray?
408. What defines the overall blackness on a dental x-ray?
409. What settings control the density of an x-ray?
410. The differences in shades of grey on an x-ray film is called:
411. Processing solutions are considered to be:
412. What is the first solution that the films encounter during processing?
413. After exposure to developing solution, which is the next solution during film processing that is necessary to dip films into?
414. Which of the following is not an appropriate light source in a darkroom?
415. Temperatures of developer chemicals in an automatic processor should range between:
416. Which of the following is not a common cause of automatic processor breakdown?
417. In regards to duplicating radiographs, which of the following is NOT true?
418. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of films that appear too light?
419. Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause of films appearing too dark?
420. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of fogged film appearance?
421. The following film shows an example of what?
422. The following film shows an example of what?
423. The following film is an example of what?
424. The following is an example of?
425. The following film shows an example of what?
426. The following film shows an example of what?
427. The longer a duplicating film is exposed to light, the _______ the film will become.
428. How many tanks are inside of an automatic processor?
429. Automatic processors require:
430. Which of the following is NOT part of practicing infection control in regards to film processing?
431. When mounting radiographs, the ADA recommends that the embossed dot should:
432. Which of the following is NOT a group that radiographs belong in when mounting?
433. What anatomical landmark helps determine a mandibular from a maxillary tooth when mounting radiographs?
434. What is the radiolucent area viewable on x-rays near the root of the first premolar?
435. What is the radiolucent line area around the root of the tooth as it appears on an x-ray?
436. What is the radiolucent line that extends through the area near the lower molars?
437. Identify the following anatomical landmark:
438. Identify the following anatomical landmark
439. Identify the following anatomical landmark:
440. Identify the following anatomical landmark:
441. Identify the following anatomical landmark:
442. Who owns the dental radiographs in a file at a dental practice?
443. When forwarding radiographs on to a patient's new dentist, which of the following is NOT true?
444. Part of informed consent in regards to taking dental x-rays on a patient includes:
445. On an x-ray, which of the following will appear as radiolucent?
446. Which of the following appears the most radiopaque on a dental x-ray?
447. Which of the following films would possibly show nasal fossa?
448. What is the effect of x-rays in humans that causes disruption of cell structure and damage to living tissues?
449. What is a bundle of energy that has no weight or mass?
450. X-rays are a type of what kind of radiation?
451. The _______ the wavelength, the greater the energy.
452. What type of radiation occurs when x-rays are deflected by impact with other objects, such as the patient's face?
453. What type of radiation is less penetrating than others and is given off after the initial x-ray beam comes into contact with the patient?
454. What is the stream of radiation called that is emitted from the x-ray unit?
455. What type of radiation is due to faulty x-ray tubeheads?
456. Which of the following is a system of measurement used to measure radiation?
457. Which of the following does not belong to the standard system of radiation measurement?
458. What is the amount of radiation energy that is absorbed by body tissue called?
459. 1 rad = _______ Gy.
460. Dose equivalence is used to measure and compare effects of radiation, and is measured in:
461. 1 rem = ________ Sv.
462. What does MPD stand for?
463. MPD for an occupationally exposed person is:
464. What is the MPD for an occupationally exposed pregnant woman?
465. What method helps reduce exposure to radiation in all methods?
466. Which of the following parts of the body can be changed by radiation exposure?
467. Which of the following type of tissue is more sensitive to radiation?
468. What is the period of time between exposure to radiation and the time when the effects become evident?
469. What is the exposure limit called for those that are exposed to radiation as part of their occupation when taking safety measures?
470. What type of radiation occurs in large dosages in a short amount of time?
471. What type of exposure is when someone is exposed to small amounts of radiation over a long period of time?
472. What type of radiation effects are passed on to future generations?
473. What type of genetic radiation affects a parent but is not passed on to future generations?
474. What protective device should be worn by every patient that is having dental x-rays taken?
475. Pregnant women that come to the dental office for x-rays should...
476. Who is responsible for ordering dental radiographs on each patient?
477. Radiographs should be taken:
478. What is the most effective way to reduce a patient's exposure to x-rays?
479. What is the fastest intraoral film available?
480. What determines the film speed?
481. What type of radiation comes from natural sources?
482. Tubeheads must be equipped with which of the following in order to limit radiation exposure?
483. The aluminum filter in an x-ray tubehead filters out:
484. What produces a higher energy x-ray beam that provides more penetration?
485. What is used to restrict the size and shape of an x-ray beam?
486. What type of PID provides less spread of x-ray beam radiation?
487. Which of the following must be used on all patients receiving x-rays?
488. Who should hold the film for a child that is unable to cooperate for a necessary dental x-ray?
489. What is used to measure the amount of radiation exposure for dental care workers?
490. Always stand at least ____ feet away from an x-ray unit during use.
491. To reduce exposure, it is better to stand where in relation to the primary beam?
492. What part of the x-ray tube generates electrons?
493. What part of the x -ray tubehead has a tungsten block inside of a copper stem that acts as a target for electrons?
494. What is the metal disk that acts as a filter, which has a small opening to allow x-ray beams to leave the tubehead?
495. What controls the amount of electrons that are produced in an x-ray beam?
496. What is used to control the penetrating power of an x-ray?
497. Which of the following appear as radiolucent on a dental x-ray?
498. Which of the following appear as radiopaque on a dental x-ray?
499. What amount of radiation produces very little chance of injury?
500. The larger the size of crystals on a film, ________________.

CDA Practice Exam

Quality starts with who wrote the material.
Our practice exam writer
s
:
Tiffany Neal, CDA (DANB), EFDA
, has been a practicing dental assistant for close to 20 years. She has taught dental assisting at Everest College in Colorado.


Sharon Boyd, RDH
, is a registered dental hygienist and dental educator. As a professional dental writer, she has worked for several continuing education programs and is the head continuing education curriculum writer for an American Dental Association CERP provider.


Abby Altergott, RDH
, is a registered dental hygienist who has worked in the specialties of oral surgery, periodontics and orthodontics for eight years. She worked as a dental assistant for three years.

Our practice exam follows the CDA blueprint component exam areas: GC, RHS & ICE:

1. General Chairside Assisting (GC)

GC Exam Blueprint:

  • Evaluation
  • Patient Managemnt and Administration
  • Chairside Dentistry
  • Dental Materials

GC Exam Summary:

  • 95 multiple-choice questions
  • 75 minutes testing time


2. Radiation Health and Safety (RHS)

RHS Exam Blueprint:

  • Purpose and Technique
  • Radiation Protection
  • Infection Control

RHS Exam Summary:

  • 75 multiple-choice questions
  • 1 hour testing time


3. Infection Control (ICE)

ICE Exam Blueprint:

  • Prevent of Disease Transmission
  • Prevention of Cross-contamination
  • Process of Instruments and Devices
  • Occupational Safety and Admin Protocols 

ICE Exam Summary:

  • 80 multiple-choice questions
  • 1 hour testing time