2024 Edition

PTCB - Pharmacy Tech Practice Test

Try our free Pharmacy Tech Practice Exam below. Your results will be scored automatically and will display your strengths and weaknesses.

There are two ways to become a certified Pharmacy Technician – through the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) and through the National Healthcareer Association (NHA). Check your state to see which form of certification is accepted. The PTCB and the NHA both require the taking of an exam prior to certification.

The PTCE Exam is 110 minutes long and consists of 90 questions arranged into four knowledge domains, including Medications, Federal Requirements, Patient Safety and Quality Assurance and Order Entry and Processing.

Candidates taking the ExCPT are given two hours to answer 120 multiple choice questions. The test focuses on four general areas: Overview and Laws, Drugs and Drug Therapy, Dispensing Process and Medication Safety and Quality Assurance.

For complete practice of actual exam topics, check out the Pharmacy Technician Practice Exam Kit with 750 questions and fully explained answers, written by instructors in pharmacy technician studies, former FDA reviewers and subject matter experts in pharmacy.

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Pharmacy Law and Regulation

1.	Which of the following is used to report medication quality problems?
		a. FDA Form 79
		b. DEA Form 222
		c. MedWatch Form
		d. Shipment receipt
The MedWatch Form can be obtained from the FDA to report serious adverse events, quality problems or product use errors associated with FDA regulated products. The form is used to voluntarily report medication problems to the FDA. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	Which of the following drugs is exempt from the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970?
		a. Acetaminophen over one gram in a package
		b. Oral Contraceptives
		c. Ibuprofen with over 1,000 mg in a single package
		d. Powdered flavored aspirin
The PPPA was an Act established by the Nixon administration to decrease accidental ingestions of harmful medications by children while still allowing for seniors to access their medication. Exempt items include powdered unflavored or effervescent aspirin, oral contraceptives, ibuprofen, or acetaminophen with less than 1g/1000mg contained within one package. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 established rules regarding patient rights to protect personal health information. Which of the following is NOT considered Protected Health Information?
		a. Social Security number
		b. Date of Birth
		c. Blood type
		d. License plate number
Protected Health Information is any distinguishing factor that is part of the patient profile and would allow for others to identify the person. Blood type is the correct answer as by itself, it does not identify a single person. Social security number and Date of Birth can identify a person. The license plate number can be used to identify patients through license registration records. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	In 2023, the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) revised regulations as they pertain to Schedule II prescriptions and the ability to transfer this type of prescription. Which of the following is part of the updated regulation?
		a. Schedule II prescriptions can be transferred between any pharmacies.
		b. The transfer of the Schedule II prescription is permissible only once.
		c. An electronic Schedule II prescription can be faxed as a transfer to another pharmacy by a technician.
		d. All documentation regarding the transfer must be maintained for 18 months from the date of the prescription.
Per regulation, Schedule II can (1) only be transferred between retail pharmacies (2) upon request from the patient and (3) permissible on a one time only basis. The prescription must be transferred in its electronic form, unaltered. The communication must be between two licensed pharmacists. Records must be maintained for two years from the date of transfer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	How many refills are allowed on CIII drugs?
		a. 5
		b. 3
		c. 1
		d. 0
CIII drugs can have up to 5 refills and are refillable up to 6 months. Some examples of CIII drugs include Vicodin and Xanax. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medication Order Entry, Interpretation and the Fill Process

6.	A 60 day supply for a prescription for Colace 100 mg capsule taken bid should be filled with ___.
		a. 30 capsules
		b. 60 capsules
		c. 120 capsules
		d. 180 capsules
The correct answer is 120 capsules because the prescription is for a 60 day supply and directions are one capsule twice daily (bid). In other words, 1 x 2 x 60 = 120. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	A physician sends this patient's prescription electronically to the Retail Pharmacy. According to the prescription below, what directions should be given with this medication?
		a. Take one tablet by mouth now, then one tablet by mouth on days 2 through 7 in the morning before meals. Discontinue use and return if side effects are not tolerable.
		b. Take two tabs fast dissolve now. Days 2 through 7 take 1-tab fast dissolve in the morning pre-coffee. Discharge and return to office if starting to burn or blood pressure increases.
		c. Take two teaspoons by mouth on Saturday. Days 2 through 7 take one teaspoon by mouth in the morning after meals. Discontinue and return to the office if shaking or bleeding or blood pressure increases.
		d. Take two tabs by mouth now. Days 2 through 7 take one tab by mouth every morning after meals. Discontinue and return to the office if shortness of breath or blood pressure increases.
SIG CODE: TK = take Tab = tablets Po = by mouth Stat= immediately Q = every Am = morning Pc = after meals DC = discontinue SOB: shortness of breath BP= blood pressure Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	A patient drops off a prescription for Oxycodone 10 mg. Based on the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Diversion control, under 21 C.F.R § 1306.05(a), which of the following is NOT required for a Pharmacy to consider filling?
		a. Date
		b. Patient Full Name
		c. Patient Date of Birth
		d. Drug Strength and Form
Based on the DEA requirements, for a pharmacy to consider filling a controlled substance, it must contain: date, patient's full name, patient's address, drug name, drug strength, dosage form, quantity, directions for use, prescriber's name, prescriber's DEA, prescriber's DEA address, and practitioner's physical signature. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Inventory for Adderall XR 20mg has been scarce for months, with continued backorders and intermittent supply. The pharmacy receives a prescription for the medication, quantity thirty (30). When gathering the medication bottle from the safe, there is an "X" on the lid, indicating it is not a full bottle. The technician discovers the inventory is incorrect in the computer system and they are ten pills short to fill the entire prescription. What is the best action for the technician?
		a. Inform the patient that they will need to call the doctor to have a new prescription sent to another pharmacy that has enough stock to fill.
		b. Fill for the quantity currently in stock, informing the patient that they will need to forego the additional 10 pills and return to their physician 10 days early to retrieve the new written prescription.
		c. Advise the patient of the low stock, offering to call additional pharmacies for stock status and if found, have the additional stock transferred to their pharmacy.
		d. Based on wholesaler estimates, additional inventory should arrive in 5 days. You advise the patient and fill the twenty pills, then hold the remaining due from the prescription until the drug is received after the five expected days.
Under the rules for CII medications, which include Adderall, prescriptions are permitted to be partially filled if completed within 72 hours. Because of the extended backorder, it will be difficult to fill the remainder of the prescription on time. Controlled Medications are permitted to be transferred between two valid DEA licensed pharmacies only once. Under ethics rules, the pharmacy tech should call other stores to try to determine the stock situation to keep the patient adherent to their medication schedule. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

10.	A PRN order is an order for a medication that is used on a(n) ________ basis in a hospital.
		a. regular
		b. everyday
		c. as-needed
		d. nightly
PRN is a medical term that means “as needed.” PRN orders are requests for mediation that is not used on a routine basis. Instead PRN medications are used only when the patient needs it, such when Phenergan is used for nausea and vomiting. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Pharmacology for Technicians

11.	Pharmacy technicians can refer to the _______ Book to find out of if two drugs are equivalent.
		a. Blue
		b. Orange
		c. Green
		d. White
The primary reference for therapeutic equivalence is the FDA's Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, commonly known as the Orange Book. It is the official source that provides standards, which dictate drug equivalence. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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12.	Grapefruit and other citruses can alter the absorption of a medication. Which drug class and medication is contraindicated for severe interaction with citrus?
		a. Statins (simvastatin)
		b. Statins (rosuvastatin)
		c. Calcium Channel Blocker (Amlodipine)
		d. Calcium Channel Blocker (Felodipine)
Grapefruit and sometimes other citruses can alter the absorption of a medication. It can either block the enzymes causing too much drug into the body, or, it can block the transporters and allow not enough drug into the body. Based on current guidance, statins such as Simvastatin, are contraindicated in citrus consumption. Rosuvastatin, Amlodipine, and Felodipine are not contraindicated. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	Based on current CDC recommendations, what is NOT recommended best practice in vaccine storage?
		a. Store the vaccine only in the refrigerator door or crisper drawer
		b. Replace crisper bins with water bottles.
		c. Do not put personal food or beverages in the refrigerator.
		d. Do not use the top shelf for vaccine.
According to the CDC, vaccines should NOT be stored in the door of the refrigerator based on the frequent opening and closing of the door. This exposes them to temperature variations and light. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Lansoprazole is considered a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI). PPIs are used to reduce the level of _____________ in the body.
		a. Carbon Dioxide
		b. Thyroid hormone
		c. Stomach acid
		d. Testosterone
PPIs are used for the treatment of GERD by lowering the level of stomach acid, resulting in a decrease in symptoms. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy?
		a. It is an unexpected response to medication.
		b. It is an expected response to medication.
		c. It is a planned response to medication.
		d. It is a unique response to medication.
Unexpected responses to medications are called idiosyncrasies or idiosyncratic effects. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Compounding Procedures and Safety

16.	Before, after, and throughout each shift, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands with an anti-microbial agent for at least _____.
		a. 10 seconds
		b. 30 seconds
		c. 60 seconds
		d. 120 seconds
Pharmacy technicians should always wash their hands for at least 30 seconds, allowing the friction and antimicrobial agent to thoroughly clean the hands and arms. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	The hospital retail pharmacy receives an order from an ER physician for a patient newly diagnosed with contact dermatitis, which caused large red welts to appear on his chest. The doctor orders Hydrocortisone 1%, 80 grams to be dispensed to the patient. The pharmacy has chosen to compound this medication using hydrocortisone powder. What is the required quantity of powder to fill this prescription for a 90-day period?
		a. 2.8 grams
		b. 0.8 grams
		c. 2.4 grams
		d. 3.6 grams
1% is equal to 1 gram of medication for every 100 Grams. 0.01 x 80 grams (x3 to include refill) = 2.4 grams Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

18.	Based on current United States Pharmacopeia (USP) chapter <800> guidance, if no specific agent is listed on the HD label for deactivation, which agent should be used?
		a. Ultra sonification
		b. Peroxide formulations
		c. Steam
		d. 70% alcohol
Peroxide formulations are recommended for deactivation. Per current USP standards, ultra sonification is used to inactivate food enzymes, steam is used for inactivating microorganisms, and 70% alcohol is used as a cleaning agent. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	Which requirements are outsourcing facilities subject to when compounding non-sterile preparations?
		a. HRSA
		b. cGMP
		c. Aseptic filling
		d. CMS
Requirements differ as they relate to quality of compounded drugs from one facility to another facility. In an outsourcing facility, most compounding is large batch, non-sterile preparations for unit dosing. This is a form of manufacturing, which falls under the cGMP, Current Good Manufacturing Practices. The other requirements do not regulate compounding. HRSA guides healthcare access for non/underinsured patients, aseptic filling is related to putting commercial sterile products into sterile containers. CMS is the centers for Medicare and Medicaid services. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	Which of the following defines a solvent?
		a. The solution
		b. The active ingredient
		c. The solution plus a solute
		d. The larger part of a solution
The larger part of a solution is called the “solvent.” A solvent is a substance, usually a liquid, that dissolves another substance to make a solution. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Calculations

21.	A physician order for a 120 mg dose of Gentamycin 40mg/mL should be filled with ______ of Gentamycin.
		a. 80 mL
		b. 5 mL
		c. 3 mL
		d. 60 mL
The correct answer is 3 mL because for every 1 mL of Gentamycin medication there are 40 mg. 40 mg x 3 equals 120 mg, which is the same as desired dose of 120 mg. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	A teen-aged female presents to Urgent Care after three days of not being able to swallow. Rapid testing indicates that the patient is positive for Strep A infection and needs to be treated with antibiotics. Based on patient demographics, the current recommended dosage for the prescribed antibiotic is 25mg/kg/day, divided into three 8-hour dosages in a 24-hour period. If the patient weighs 132 pounds, what would be the single dosage amount for this patient?
		a. 1500 mg
		b. 325 mg
		c. 500 mg
		d. 1100 mg
(1) Convert pounds to kg: 2.2 x 132 pounds = 60 kg. (2) Find mg/kg, using the converted pounds (60kg) and multiply by the stated mg/kg (25): 60 x 25 = 1500mg. (3) Question requests the single dosage amount. The order is three times daily, requiring the total to be divided by 3: 1500/3 = 500mg per dose. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	A patient in the ICU has an IV drip that is set to deliver 20 drops/minute. Given that there are 60 drops per mL, calculate the infusion rate (mL/hr.).
		a. 400 mL/hr.
		b. 1220 mL/hr.
		c. 2000 mL/hr.
		d. 1200 mL/hr.
20 drips per minute x 60 min. in an hour = 1200mL/hr. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	The pharmacy has a 3L bottle of 18% solution. A prescription for this medication is received, requiring you to use sterile water to dilute. The prescription requests a 12% solution concentration. How much sterile water is required?
		a. 4500 mL
		b. 540 mL
		c. 1500 mL
		d. 3000 mL
Concentration x volume= Concentration2 x Volume2 (0.18) (3000mL) = (0.12) (x) 0.18*3000 = 540mL. Divide both sides by 0.12 giving you 4500mL. Your package is already 3000mL, so 4500 - 3000 = 1500 mL of sterile water. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	There are ______ ounces (oz.) in a pound (lb).
		a. 4
		b. 6
		c. 8
		d. 16
There are 16 ounces in a pound. This is a common conversion that is used when weighing material on a scale. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Anatomy and Physiology

26.	Epilepsy is caused by excessive ______ activity within the brain.
		a. chemical
		b. hormone
		c. blood flow
		d. electrical
Excessive electrical activity within the brain can cause seizures. Grand mal seizures involve convulsions and can include unconsciousness. Petit mal seizures do not involve convulsions but may include periods of stupor. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Name the substance that aids in the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscle.
		a. Ascorbic acid
		b. Acetylcholine
		c. Cyanocobalamin
		d. Niacinamide
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) aids in the formation of blood vessels, cartilage, muscle, and collagen in bones. The nerve impulse is aided by the mixture of acetic acid and choline. Cyanocobalamin aids in the production of red blood cells. Niacinamide is used in the prevention of B3 deficiency. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

28.	What is the "major gland" of the endocrine system?
		a. Adrenal
		b. Pituitary
		c. Thyroid
		d. Pineal
The pituitary gland is the major gland that controls functions of all other glands in the endocrine system. Adrenal glands control the fight or flight response. The thyroid gland controls metabolic rate and energy. The pineal gland controls sleep and wake cycles. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	What disease can impact the metabolism or excretion of a drug in a significant way, increasing the potential for drug accumulation and toxicity?
		a. Hepatic/Kidney
		b. HIV/AIDS
		c. Hypoparathyroidism
		d. Cholestasis
The kidneys oversee eliminating drugs from our bodies. If there is severe kidney failure or damage, any ingested medication would not be efficiently and completely removed causing increased toxicity to the body. HIV/AIDS attacks the immune system and does not interfere with medication in a significant way. Hypoparathyroidism affects the endocrine system. Cholestasis is a drug-induced liver injury. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	Which age ranges defines a neonate?
		a. Birth to 1 month
		b. 1 month to 1 year
		c. 1 year to 5 years
		d. 6 years to 12 years
A neonate is a newborn baby who is 1 month old or less. After a baby reaches the age of 1 month, it is then considered an “infant.” Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Inventory Management and Quality Assurance

31.	While working in a pharmacy, a technician can locate storage requirements for a particular drug in which resource?
		a. Taber's Medical Dictionary
		b. Davis' Drug Guide
		c. United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary
		d. Manufacturer invoice
The United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary provides standards for storage. Details such as light, ventilation, sanitation, and temperature are also provided. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Define the 340B program as it pertains to the hospital setting (including hospital retail).
		a. An inventory control system for auditing dispensing of controlled substances.
		b. A system of separating the inventory in pharmacy, purchased by the Federal Government for patients that do not have any insurance or means to pay.
		c. A program that allows covered entities to purchase specific manufacturer drugs at a discounted rate when compared to wholesale pricing.
		d. An inventory model used to purchase employee medications at a significant discount, therefore offering employees no-cost prescription to improve wellness and financial strain.
The Public Health Services (PHS) Act established the 340B program based on the continued growing costs associated with care of patients who have no means to pay. This program allowed covered entities to procure certain medications (NDC specific) at a significant discount, allowing for that calculated difference to support additional programs and uncompensated care so as not to burden the community or bankrupt the hospital. These are not for profit health systems. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	Augmentin suspension should be _________ and it will last for ___________ days.
		a. stored at room temperature, 30
		b. stored at room temperature, 14
		c. refrigerated, 10
		d. refrigerated, 7
Augmentin suspension should be refrigerated and it lasts for ten days. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Medication Administration

34.	The seven rights of medication include all of the following EXCEPT_______________.
		a. route
		b. gender
		c. time
		d. drug
The seven rights of medication include the right patient, dose, time, route, technique, drug and documentation. Gender is not one of the seven rights. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

35.	What is true about drugs on the Preferred Drug list?
		a. The drugs are all generic.
		b. Most drugs are brand name.
		c. The drugs are found to be inferior in management of disease states.
		d. The Federal Government has specified that these drugs treat orphan/rare disease.
The Bureau for Medical Services and the Medicaid P&T committee have determined that these are NDC specific drugs and are to be (insurance based-financial) covered outpatient drugs. For a drug to be considered for the Preferred Drug list, the manufacturer must agree to a pharmaceutical pricing agreement with CMS. The agreement requires the drugs to be discounted. If a covered entity does not use the 340B priced drug, a rebate for the drug is paid to Medicaid by the Manufacturer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	What is an inventory system that allows a continuous record of inventory in real-time?
		a. Perpetual
		b. Point of Sale
		c. Physical
		d. Reorder Par
Definitions under the OPA/HRSA and APEXUS: Point of sale is not an inventory type. Physical systems are updated periodically and not in real time. Reorder Par is the level of inventory required to support the use of a specific drug. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	What is the recommended maximum amount of medication that should be administered at one time for subcutaneous injections?
		a. There is no maximum.
		b. 3 mL
		c. 0.8 mL
		d. 8 mL
When larger volumes of medication are injected subcutaneously, it can cause an elevated level of discomfort in the patient. Therefore, a maximum 3mL at one time is recommended, with 2mL being the standard. While this is not a requirement, it is recommended based on research on patient comfort. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called:
		a. Plateau
		b. Peak plasma level
		c. Onset of action
		d. Drug half-life
The onset of action is the time after a drug administration in which the body initially responds to the medication. Some drugs may have a rapid onset of action but a short half-life, while others may have a slower onset, but their effects last longer. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Professionalism

39.	A patient asks a pharmacy technician if it is okay to drink grapefruit juice every day while taking a Coumadin. A pharmacy technician should _______.
		a. tell the patient that grapefruit is contraindicated while taking Coumadin.
		b. tell the patient that grapefruit is ok.
		c. refer the patient to a pharmacist.
		d. tell the patient to call his doctor.
Even though the pharmacy technician may know the answer to a patient's question, the pharmacy technician should refer the patient to a pharmacist because pharmacy technicians are not allowed to counsel patients on drug interactions. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	If an IV injection of an antibiotic contains particulate matter, which of the following problems is of least concern?
		a. Anaphylactic Shock
		b. Pulmonary Embolism
		c. Phlebitis
		d. Air Embolism
Under USP 788, particulate matter is an undissolved substance, excluding gas bubbles, in a parenteral prep. Since particulate matter do not contain gas bubbles, this excludes risk of air embolism. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	Which factors are NOT considered when choosing a route of medication administration?
		a. Physical and chemical drug properties
		b. Impact on gastrointestinal enzymes or liver metabolism
		c. Option for the oral liquid to be flavored by the Pharmacist
		d. Rate of drug absorption from different sites
Options A, B, and D are all taken into consideration when choosing the proper route of a medication. The only item that would not be part of the decision is whether the medication, if oral, can be flavored to the patient's request. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	The primary role of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics (P&T) Committee is to:
		a. Establish a drug formulary.
		b. Increase therapeutic redundancies to reduce the impact of shortages.
		c. Minimize cost effectiveness.
		d. Establish proper markup on drugs to maximize pharmacy revenue.
The P&T Committee is a team made up of different providers within the health care system. It determines which medications should be preferred for use based on efficacy, shortages, cost effectiveness, etc. Goals of the Committee include attempting to decrease therapeutic redundancies and maximize cost effectiveness. P&T, while considering cost, has nothing to do with drug markup. This is determined by a finance department. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	Those who hold a credential of the National Certification of Pharmacy Technicians, according to the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), have an obligation to maintain high standards of _____ and ______.
		a. Integrity and Ethics
		b. Ethics and Hygiene
		c. Ethics and Education
		d. Integrity and Conduct
Based on the guidebook for PTCB, those who hold the certification and are candidates must maintain a high standard of Integrity and Conduct. Conduct includes hygiene while integrity includes ethics. Education is a requirement for recertification and is not part of the standards of professionalism. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	What should countertops in I.V. rooms be cleaned with?
		a. Iodine
		b. Iodide
		c. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
		d. 90% Isopropyl Alcohol
Isopropyl Alcohol should be used to clean countertops, as well as the laminar flood hood, and gloves in between I.V. admixtures. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Equipment

45.	Laminar flow hoods require ________ filters for use.
		a. HEPA
		b. water
		c. humidifier
		d. double
HEPA filters should be used with laminar flow hoods Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	Pharmacy Technicians are not permitted to do which one of the following when assisting patients with questions and concerns about herbal supplements?
		a. Lead the patient to the area of the sales floor where supplements are contained.
		b. Advise the patient on which are the best supplements to take with their Blood Pressure Medication.
		c. Advise the patient on current sale prices.
		d. Locate additional stock for sale.
A pharmacy technician cannot make medical recommendations or represent themselves as a trained medical provider as these all fall under the unauthorized practice of medicine. The pharmacy technician can lead the patient to various areas on the sales floor, advise the patient about sale prices and locate additional stock for sale as these are all not considered the practice of medicine. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	Which of the following is one of the steps included in the proper cleaning of the Horizontal Laminar IV Flow Hood?
		a. Gather supplies from stock room that have not been sanitized.
		b. Wipe at a right angle to the air flow.
		c. Clean from front to back, bottom to top.
		d. Ensure the hood is running while cleaning is completed.
Proper cleaning of the flow hood includes (1) While minding to wipe at a right angle of the air flow (to prevent area from particles) clean the back wall. (2) From top to bottom, clean each side of the flow hood, ensuring to overlap lines. (3) Beginning in the back, continue to clean, moving towards the front of the unit. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	Medicare Part _____ will cover the cost of durable medical equipment, billed by the pharmacy.
		a. A
		b. B
		c. C
		d. D
Original (traditional) Medicare includes Part A for hospital insurance, Part B for Medical insurance covering outpatient care (which includes Durable medical equipment and Devices), Part C is Medicare Advantage plan, which covers vision, hearing, dental, etc., not covered by traditional Medicare. Part D is prescription coverage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	As a sterile compounding pharmacy technician working with non-hazardous chemicals, all of the following personal protection equipment (PPE) are required to comply with current USP regulations, except:
		a. Powder-free Nitrile gloves
		b. Hair net/bonnets
		c. Eye protection
		d. Lead based aprons
When compounding a sterile medication, one must use powder free nitrile gloves to prevent harm to patients who have an allergy to powder found in normal latex gloves. Hair net/bonnets are a requirement to prevent contamination and exposure by the compounding technician. Eye protection prevents injury from backsplash. A lead apron is required only for fluoroscopy/Medical Imaging. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Which scales are sensitive enough to measure a 650 mg to 120 g?
		a. Class A balance
		b. Class B balance
		c. Electronic scale
		d. Household scale
The ability to accurately balance product is extremely important in compounding. The Class B balance measures 650 mg to 120 g. The Class A balance is only required to be sensitive enough to measure 120 mg to 15 g. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Billing and Reimbursement

51.	Medicare ___ provides prescription coverage.
		a. Part A
		b. Part B
		c. Part C
		d. Part D
Medicare Part D provides prescription drug coverage. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

52.	What three components are needed to bill a pharmacy claim?
		a. Member ID number, BIN, and PCN
		b. The patient's insurance card, BIN, and PCN
		c. Member ID number, BIN, and Condor Code
		d. The patient's name, date of birth, and phone number
In order to bill a patient's insurance you must have the BIN and PCN to ensure proper routing of the claim as well as the member ID number to identify patient specific benefits. Even if the patient does not have their card, benefit information can still be obtained if they are able to provide these three key pieces of information. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

PTCE / ExCPT

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Lisa Thompson, RPht, CPht,

is an adjunct instructor in pharmacy technician studies at Barry University. She has been in the pharmacy industry for over 30 years and has been a reviewer for McGraw Hill and Elsevier in the field of pharmacy.

Domanique Culpepper, RPht, CPht,

is an instructor in pharmacy tech studies at Everest University and has worked as a pharmacy tech for over 10 years.. She is a member of the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists.

Fabian Stone, CPht,

is an adjunct instructor in pharmacy studies at the University of North Georgia.

Bradley Gillespie, PharmD,

is a registered pharmacist and director of drug development for a company working with the NIH. He is widely published on the subject of pharmacology and is a former FDA pharmacology reviewer.

There are two ways to become certified—through the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) and through the National Healthcare Association (NHA). Check your state to see which form of certification is accepted. The PTCB and the NHA both require the taking of an exam prior to certification.

The PTCE consists of 90 questions and is arranged into nine knowledge domains:

- Medications
- Federal Regulations
- Patient Safety
- Quality Assurance
- Order Entry
- Order Processing

The ExCPT has 120 multiple choice questions and focuses on three general areas:

- Technician Duties
- Drug Products
- Dispensing Process

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